NTSE Stage-2 Question Paper 2014

NTSE Stage-2 Question Paper 2014

This is NTSE Stage-2 Question Paper 2014.. There are 200 questions in this test with each question having around four answer choices.

Questions & Answers

1
Select the correct number that is missing in the number series given below:214, 265, 367, ?, 724
  • A
    571
  • B
    525
  • C
    501
  • D
    520
    Correct
2
Select the correct alphabet-number that is missing in the alphabet-number series given below: NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, ?, YAM31
  • A
    RPA30
    Correct
  • B
    RPA31
  • C
    PAR31
  • D
    PRA30
3
P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is the wife of Q; \(P \times Q\) means P is the brother of Q. which of the following means A is the maternal uncle of D?
  • A
    \(D \times C - B \times A\)
  • B
    \(A - C \times B + D\)
  • C
    \(A \times B - C + D\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(A \times C + B - C\)
4
Select from the alternatives two signs which need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. \(36 \div 12 \times 6 + 9 - 6 = 38\)
  • A
    \( - \,and\, \times \)
  • B
    — and +
  • C
    \( \div \,and\, + \)
    Correct
  • D
    \( \div \,and\, \times \)
5
According to a certain code, ‘=’ means ‘>’, ‘-’ means ‘+’, and ‘+’ means ‘-’. If a, b and c are positive integers and a = b = c, then which of the following is true?
  • A
    \(ac = {c^2}\)
  • B
    b = a + c
    Correct
  • C
    a – c = 2b
  • D
    \(ac = {b^2}\)
6
Find the correct group of letters in place of
  • A
    NVPTR
  • B
    NFLHJ
  • C
    NBKEH
    Correct
  • D
    NDRZV
7
Complete the box by appropriate number.
Question 7 figure 1
  • A
    12
  • B
    14
  • C
    13
    Correct
  • D
    18
8
Complete the box by appropriate number.
Question 8 figure 1
  • A
    11
  • B
    16
  • C
    14
  • D
    15
    Correct
9
Two faces of a cube are given below. Which number will be opposite 3?
Question 9 figure 1
  • A
    4
  • B
    2
  • C
    5
  • D
    1
    Correct
10
A, B and C together can complete a work in ‘x’ days. How many days would B alone take to complete the work? Statements: C can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A. B can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A and C together. A and C taken together can complete the work in ‘z’ days.
  • A
    Either II or III is sufficient
    Correct
  • B
    I alone is sufficient
  • C
    II and III taken together are sufficient
  • D
    Both I and II are required
11
A boat travels in a stream from A to B and then from B to A. What is the speed of the boat in still water?Statements: The speed of the boat in still water is 2 km/h more than the speed of the current.The speed of the current is 1 km/h more than the speed of the boat.Boat covers the distance by y kilometers between A and B both downstream and upstream in x hours.
  • A
    Either I and II together or II and III together are sufficient
  • B
    Both II and III are required
  • C
    I and III taken together are sufficient
    Correct
  • D
    All of I, II and III are required
12
How many triangles are there in the following figures?
Question 12 figure 1
  • A
    17
  • B
    18
  • C
    22
  • D
    20
    Correct
13
There are two statements given below as premise, which support the conclusion suggested in the answer options.You may select the conclusion that makes the whole argument valid:Statements:No film actors are Cricketers.Some Cricketers are poets.
  • A
    Therefore, all film actors are poets.
  • B
    Therefore, all poets are film actors.
  • C
    Therefore, some poets are film actors.
  • D
    Therefore, some poets are not film actors.
    Correct
14
Find the missing term (?) in the following series2, 6, 30, 260, ?
  • A
    630
  • B
    3130
    Correct
  • C
    470
  • D
    510
15
One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.2, 6, 18, 82, 650
  • A
    82
    Correct
  • B
    650
  • C
    18
  • D
    2
16
If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as
  • A
    MFM
  • B
    NFN
  • C
    UMU
    Correct
  • D
    UNU
17
If Fast is coded as 798 and LAST is coded as 906 then BUSY is coded as
  • A
    948
  • B
    1431
    Correct
  • C
    1759
  • D
    952
18
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are in a class. A and B are from Town and C, D, E and F are from village. D and F are studious while others are casual. A, C, D are girls and B, E, F are boys. Who is the studious girl from village?
  • A
    D
    Correct
  • B
    F
  • C
    E
  • D
    C
19
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Gopal is shorter than Ashok but taller than KunalNavin is shorter than KunalJayesh is taller than NavinAshok is taller than JayeshWho among them is the tallest?
  • A
    Kunal
  • B
    Ashok
    Correct
  • C
    Gopal
  • D
    Navin
20
Five persons are standing in a line. One of two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the advocate. Counting from the left, the advocate is at which place.
  • A
    3rd
    Correct
  • B
    2nd
  • C
    1st
  • D
    5th
21
Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word “LIVER”
Question 21 figure 1
  • A
    \(\delta \gamma \theta \pi \varepsilon \)
    Correct
  • B
    \(\nu \eta \lambda \mu \pi \)
  • C
    \(\alpha \beta \delta \gamma \eta \)
  • D
    \(\rho \sigma \omega \varepsilon \nu \)
22
Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word “TROUBLE”
Question 22 figure 1
  • A
    \(\nu \alpha \beta \delta \gamma \eta \lambda \)
  • B
    \(\delta \gamma \eta \lambda \omega \varepsilon \nu \)
  • C
    \(\sigma \lambda \rho \pi \alpha \gamma \theta \)
    Correct
  • D
    \(\nu \sigma \omega \delta \gamma \theta \varepsilon \)
23
Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word “BROWN”
Question 23 figure 1
  • A
    \(\pi \rho \beta \nu \varepsilon \)
  • B
    \(\omega \varepsilon \nu \lambda \omega \)
  • C
    \(\omega \delta \pi \rho \nu \)
  • D
    \(\alpha \pi \lambda \eta \nu \)
    Correct
24
Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word “CYCLE”
Question 24 figure 1
  • A
    \(\pi \lambda \beta \nu \pi \)
  • B
    \(\beta \theta \beta \nu \pi \)
  • C
    \(\pi \rho \pi \varepsilon \omega \)
  • D
    \(\beta \theta \gamma \mu \beta \)
    Correct
25
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different profession-Lawyer, Charted Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Charted Accountant. Each of them has a different monthly income. The Charted Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the engineer, earns less than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The pharmacist’s income is not the lowest. Which of the following pairs of professional represents the professions of husband and wife?
  • A
    Chartered Accountant, Engineer
  • B
    Engineer, Pharmacist
  • C
    Chartered Accountant, Architect
    Correct
  • D
    Pharmacist, Architect
26
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different profession-Lawyer, Charted Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Charted Accountant. Each of them has a different monthly income. The Charted Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the engineer, earns less than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The pharmacist’s income is not the lowest. Which of the following statements is false?
  • A
    The Doctor earns more than the Engineer
  • B
    The Teacher earns less than the Engineer
  • C
    The Pharmacist earns more than the Lawyer
  • D
    The Architect earns more than the Lawyer
    Correct
27
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different profession-Lawyer, Charted Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Charted Accountant. Each of them has a different monthly income. The Charted Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the engineer, earns less than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The pharmacist’s income is not the lowest. What is P’s profession?
  • A
    None of the above
  • B
    Lawyer
  • C
    Pharmacist
    Correct
  • D
    Teacher
28
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different profession-Lawyer, Charted Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Charted Accountant. Each of them has a different monthly income. The Charted Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the engineer, earns less than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The pharmacist’s income is not the lowest. Which of the following represents the three female members of the family?
  • A
    PTQ
  • B
    Data inadequate
    Correct
  • C
    TRQ
  • D
    VTQ
29
Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents Ocean, Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean and Mariana Trench?
  • A
    Option A
    Correct
  • B
    Option B
  • C
    Option C
  • D
    Option D
30
If RAJASTHAN = 9R17J8L19H13 in a coded language, then what is the encrypted form of the MANIPUR in the same language?
  • A
    14M13V11J9
    Correct
  • B
    13R14J11F9
  • C
    14RI3H11G9
  • D
    13M14W11B9
31
What is the next number in the series 7, 23, 31, 55, 109, ____
  • A
    199
  • B
    209
  • C
    191
    Correct
  • D
    189
32
Find out the missing number in the second figure on the basis of numbers arranged in the first figure.
Question 32 figure 1
  • A
    58
    Correct
  • B
    32
  • C
    30
  • D
    160
33
If urban population is 350 find out the non-educated non-working urban females?
Question 33 figure 1
  • A
    10
  • B
    9
  • C
    20
  • D
    13
    Correct
34
Find out the urban males who are educated but not working.
Question 34 figure 1
  • A
    30
  • B
    7
  • C
    40
    Correct
  • D
    110
35
If rural population is 150, how many non-working rural males who are not educated?
Question 35 figure 1
  • A
    6
  • B
    3
    Correct
  • C
    1
  • D
    5
36
Find out total non-working females but educated
Question 36 figure 1
  • A
    19
  • B
    80
  • C
    79
    Correct
  • D
    51
37
Find out the total rural male population?
Question 37 figure 1
  • A
    111
    Correct
  • B
    114
  • C
    187
  • D
    180
38
Crime : Police :: Flood : ?
  • A
    River
  • B
    Dam
    Correct
  • C
    Rain
  • D
    Reservoir
39
When the given sheet of paper (X) is folded to make a cube, choose the cube that may be formed.
Question 39 figure 1
  • A
    2 and 3 only
  • B
    1, 2, 3 only
  • C
    1, 2, 3 and 4
    Correct
  • D
    1 only
40
In the following diagram, there are four inter locked figures of a circle, a square, a triangle and a rectangle representing number of students passing in English, Maths, Science and Hindi, respectively. Different regions of the diagrams are also lettered from A through Q.Now consider the following statements:Statements:There is no letter that represents a student who passed in all the four subjects.There are only two letters that represent a student who passed on three subject only. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Question 40 figure 1
  • A
    Neither I and II
    Correct
  • B
    I only
  • C
    Both I and II
  • D
    II only
41
What is ‘X’ in the following table?
  • A
    18
    Correct
  • B
    16
  • C
    17
  • D
    21
42
Consider the question and two statements that follow:What is the total cost of one pen, and one pencil and 1 note book?Statements: I The total cost of 5 pens, 6 pencils and 7 note books is Rs. 178Statement: IIThe total cost of 6 pens, 4 pencils and 2 note books, is Rs. 124Which one of the following is correct?
  • A
    Statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • B
    Both statements are not sufficient to answer the question
    Correct
  • C
    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
  • D
    Statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question
43
Which one of the following differs the rest?
  • A
    JQVIPU
  • B
    DYSCXR
  • C
    ZUBXTA
    Correct
  • D
    MGDLFC
44
Which one of the following fits inside the bracket?714 ( ) 65 if 953 (RVXYS) 28
  • A
    TZWVU
  • B
    UWZSR
  • C
    UWZRS
  • D
    TZWUV
    Correct
45
If ‘X’ was born on December 6, 1983 and ‘Y’ on February 4, 1984, then when will ‘Y’ be half in age as compared to ‘X’?
  • A
    April 6, 1984
  • B
    April 4, 1984
    Correct
  • C
    April 5, 1984
  • D
    April 8, 1984
46
Famine : Hunger :: War : _______
  • A
    Infantry
  • B
    Destruction
    Correct
  • C
    Insecurity
  • D
    Enmity
47
Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q in between P and T. to find who among them is in the middle, which of the following information given in the following statements is/are sufficient?Statements:P is left of Q and right S.R is at the right end. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A
    I only
  • B
    Both I and II
    Correct
  • C
    II only
  • D
    Either I or II
48
Certain blank spaces are left in the following series. Which is the group of letters given below, if put in the blank spaces in sequence, will complete the series? _ ab _ a _ ba _ ab _ _ ab _
  • A
    abaaaba
  • B
    aaaaaaa
    Correct
  • C
    bbaabbb
  • D
    babaaaa
49
If the letters of the word ‘BLUE’ are arranged according to dictionary, what is the position of the word ‘UBLE’?
  • A
    22
  • B
    21
  • C
    20
    Correct
  • D
    19
50
All except one does not belong to the same group. Which one is that?
  • A
    Option A
    Correct
  • B
    Option B
  • C
    Option C
  • D
    Option D
51
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps remains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel, but it is also critical of the social abuses that modern technology had made possible. Through other writers had represented science and technology as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed his ideas about the future in common language. Ray Bradbury became famous because
  • A
    He was friends with Isaac Asimov and A.C. Clarke.
  • B
    Of the book The Martial Chronicle that he wrote.
    Correct
  • C
    He wrote in futuristic language.
  • D
    He wrote in futuristic language.
52
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps remains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel, but it is also critical of the social abuses that modern technology had made possible. Through other writers had represented science and technology as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed his ideas about the future in common language. In his books Bradbury expressed the view that modern technology
  • A
    Had made space travel possible
  • B
    Was as good thing but could be misuses
    Correct
  • C
    Was based on the inventions of great scientists like Asimov and Clarke
  • D
    Appealed only to a small audience of readers who knew jargon
53
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps remains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel, but it is also critical of the social abuses that modern technology had made possible. Through other writers had represented science and technology as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed his ideas about the future in common language. Bradbury’s fear regarding the development and use of modern technology were
  • A
    Shared by other writers of science fiction as well
    Correct
  • B
    Related to his personal experiences as a user of technology
  • C
    Totally unfounded and unconvincing
  • D
    Expressed using jargon
54
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps remains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel, but it is also critical of the social abuses that modern technology had made possible. Through other writers had represented science and technology as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed his ideas about the future in common language. The phrase ‘mixed bag of blessings’ means
  • A
    Having both familiar and unexpected consequences
  • B
    The constant interaction between science and technology which benefits both
  • C
    Using technical words and expressions
  • D
    Having both advantages and disadvantages
    Correct
55
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps remains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel, but it is also critical of the social abuses that modern technology had made possible. Through other writers had represented science and technology as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed his ideas about the future in common language. The phrase ‘no patience with jargon’ refers to
  • A
    The negative attitude of scientists and technologists to fiction
  • B
    Fiction writers’ lack of knowledge of
  • C
    The use of difficult words
  • D
    Readers’ lack of interest in fiction containing many technical terms proper technical terms
    Correct
56
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved sideways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But were finally managed slow runs down the gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to our clumsiness. But we ignored them firmly. Soon, exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the institute. All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating in hot air balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in. The difficult part of learning to ski for beginners is
  • A
    Avoiding bumping into noisy toddlers
  • B
    Doing fast runs on the steep slopes
  • C
    Clipping on shoes and strapping on ski's
  • D
    Balancing on skis while moving sideways and forward
    Correct
57
"Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved sideways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But were finally managed slow runs down the gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to our clumsiness. But we ignored them firmly. Soon, exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the institute. All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating in hot air balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in. The expression ‘skimming around like small gnats’ suggests that the toddlers were
  • A
    An irritation as they moved in all directions noisily
  • B
    Skilled and confident like pilots of fighter planes
  • C
    Careless and kept bumping into those around them
  • D
    Able to go skillfully up and down the slopes
    Correct
58
"Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved sideways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But were finally managed slow runs down the gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to our clumsiness. But we ignored them firmly. Soon, exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the institute. All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating in hot air balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in. The writer and his friends cut short the skiing lessons because
  • A
    They were tired and needed to rest
    Correct
  • B
    They had to go for other lessons
  • C
    They did not like to be in the same place as toddlers
  • D
    Many of them were hurt after falling down repeatedly
59
"Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved sideways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But were finally managed slow runs down the gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to our clumsiness. But we ignored them firmly. Soon, exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the institute. All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating in hot air balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in. The institute mentioned is a place where
  • A
    Facilities and training for different winter sports is provided to visitors
    Correct
  • B
    Advance training in skiing is given to prepare teams for competitions
  • C
    Only families with children go during school holidays
  • D
    Nature and adventure camps for young children are organized
60
"Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved sideways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But were finally managed slow runs down the gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to our clumsiness. But we ignored them firmly. Soon, exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the institute. All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating in hot air balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in. The narrator in this passage seems to be
  • A
    A member of an older group of beginners
    Correct
  • B
    A trainer of young children learning to ski
  • C
    A parent whose toddlers are learning to ski
  • D
    An older skier who goes to the institute often
61
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits many come as a surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized. These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects, houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible maneuverability and precision in flight. Their short wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands bits and above trees. Swallows are largely found in
  • A
    Cities with large water bodies and parks
  • B
    Villages near rivers and lakes
    Correct
  • C
    Forests with all trees
  • D
    Places where human habits attract insects
62
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits many come as a surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized. These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects, houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible maneuverability and precision in flight. Their short wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands bits and above trees. Swallows live near water bodies because
  • A
    They cannot store water in their short wide bills
  • B
    A large number of insects are found there
    Correct
  • C
    They love to skim over cool water as they perform acrobatics
  • D
    Constant flying makes them thirsty
63
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits many come as a surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized. These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects, houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible maneuverability and precision in flight. Their short wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands bits and above trees. Swallows devour a large number of insects because
  • A
    Such insects would otherwise spread diseases
  • B
    The insects population is very large
  • C
    They are natural hunters
  • D
    Their daily need for energy from food is very high
    Correct
64
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits many come as a surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized. These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects, houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible maneuverability and precision in flight. Their short wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands bits and above trees. The swallow’s short wide bill is designed to
  • A
    Trap small flying insects
    Correct
  • B
    Destroy disease spread insects
  • C
    Help it perform acrobatic manoeuvers
  • D
    Help it fly through insect swarms with great precision
65
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits many come as a surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized. These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects, houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible maneuverability and precision in flight. Their short wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands bits and above trees. The swallow is described as an air-borne acrobat because of its
  • A
    High energy needs to keep its body supple
  • B
    Ability to catch even small insects
  • C
    Ability to eat insects
  • D
    Varied movement in fast flight
    Correct
66
The following five sentences from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. Choose the order in which the four sentences (P, Q, R, S) should appear to complete the paragraph. S1. Once an ant saw, hanging from a plant, a mature chrysalis which could just move its tail. S2. _______________________________________________________________________ S3. _______________________________________________________________________ S4. _______________________________________________________________________ S5. _______________________________________________________________________ S6. The next moment the butterfly rose in the air and was soon out of the sight of the ant. P – The next morning as the ant passed by the same plant it saw a butterfly with gorgeous wings near the remnants of the chrysalis. Q – ‘Poor creature! You can just about move your tail while I can run here and there it mocked the chrysalis. R – ‘Look at me, Ant! Can you fly from one place to another in a short time?’ it said as it dried its wings. S – The chrysalis heard all this but kept quiet.
  • A
    RPSQ
  • B
    SRPQ
  • C
    QSPR
    Correct
  • D
    SPQR
67
The following five sentences from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. Choose the order in which the four sentences (P, Q, R, S) should appear to complete the paragraph. S1. We would like to thank you once again for having selected our dealership. S2. __________________________________________________________________ S3. __________________________________________________________________ S4. __________________________________________________________________ S5. __________________________________________________________________ S6. We look forward to a long lasting relationship and wish you safe motoring. P – However, in case you experience any incidence which is not to your satisfaction we will be grateful if you could provide your valuable feedback to us at our website. Q – We will bring necessary improvements in the process/organization to deliver better services to our esteemed customers. R – First of all, our entire team is dedicated to ensure your complete satisfaction and give you a wonderful experience S – This will help us to resolve your concern immediately
  • A
    QRPS
  • B
    RPSQ
    Correct
  • C
    SPQR
  • D
    SQPR
68
The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the given options to complete it. A. If you wanted to know all about bread and bread making you must visit the Bread Museum in Ulm, Germany. B. ________________________________________________________________________________________ C. There are exhibitions on the cultivation of seeds, milling techniques, techniques of bread-making, equipment, the sale of bread; virtually everything you wanted to know about bread.
  • A
    Bread making is an ancient art
  • B
    There are interesting tidbits on the use of bread on social and religious occasions as well
  • C
    Set up in 1955, this huge museum gives you a highly detailed history of bread making and displays about 10,000 objects related to bread and bread production
    Correct
  • D
    A range of bread over, bread baskets and baking moulds are used in Germany
69
The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the given options to complete it. A. Anne Frank began to keep a dairy on her thirteenth birthday, June 12, 1942, three weeks before she went into hiding with her family and friends in the sealed-off upper rooms of the annex of her father’s office building in Amsterdam. B. _____________________________________________________________________________________ C. They, were, however, betrayed in August 1944 and were deported to the Nazi remained hidden for two years and one month.
  • A
    With the assistance of a group of her father, Otto Frank’s trusted colleagues, they remained hidden for two years and one month
    Correct
  • B
    Of the group of eight, only Otto Frank survived the war
  • C
    Anne died in Bergen-Belsen shortly before its liberation in April 1945
  • D
    Anne Frank was helped by her friends
70
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. The hedge has become a little untidy after the monsoon. I think I’ll call the gardener to _______ the edges a bit.
  • A
    Prim
  • B
    Prune
    Correct
  • C
    Thin
  • D
    Slim
71
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. The men drilled and __________ the stone into smaller bits so that they could be carted away in trucks.
  • A
    hacked
  • B
    whittle
  • C
    hewed
    Correct
  • D
    mauled
72
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. Be careful. The cat might ____________ you if it feels frightened.
  • A
    scratch
    Correct
  • B
    hit
  • C
    cut
  • D
    kill
73
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. She cut the cake into equal edges and ____________ it amongst the children.
  • A
    spread
  • B
    scattered
  • C
    distributed
    Correct
  • D
    separated
74
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. For the curry you need to ___________ a few onions, a potato and a small piece of ginger.
  • A
    bite
  • B
    chop
    Correct
  • C
    strip
  • D
    saw
75
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. The men ___________ off some of the upper branches of the tree near the window to allow more light in.
  • A
    lopped
    Correct
  • B
    tore
  • C
    brought
  • D
    pluck
76
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. They picked their axes and __________ the thick bushes that grew all around.
  • A
    pulled
  • B
    slice
  • C
    scratched
  • D
    chopped
    Correct
77
"Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given. The doctor made a neat ___________ at the mouth of the boil.
  • A
    path
  • B
    wound
  • C
    dent
  • D
    incision
    Correct
78
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 28?
  • A
    for
  • B
    on
  • C
    with
  • D
    by
    Correct
79
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 29?
  • A
    this
  • B
    these
  • C
    that
    Correct
  • D
    there
80
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 30?
  • A
    for
  • B
    by
  • C
    of
    Correct
  • D
    on
81
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 31?
  • A
    because
  • B
    yet
  • C
    but
  • D
    and
    Correct
82
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 32?
  • A
    are
  • B
    there
  • C
    is
    Correct
  • D
    was
83
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 33?
  • A
    Vitamin–D
    Correct
  • B
    Hormone
  • C
    Protein
  • D
    Cell
84
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 34?
  • A
    for
  • B
    on
    Correct
  • C
    of
  • D
    off
85
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 35?
  • A
    causing
  • B
    causes
    Correct
  • C
    give
  • D
    cause
86
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 36?
  • A
    child
  • B
    boy
  • C
    infants
    Correct
  • D
    young
87
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options. Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ______ (28) the body through a process _______ (29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ______ (30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face _______ (31) arms to ultraviolet light _______ (32) the most reliable source of ________ (33) in spring and summer. Deficiency _______ (34) vitamin-D causes rickets. This ________ (36) Therefore, a good exposure to _________ (37) is essential. Which fits in gap 37?
  • A
    sunlight
    Correct
  • B
    sunlights
  • C
    ray
  • D
    lights
88
Choose the appropriate phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. My sister ____________ our grandmother who loved to take up challenges.
  • A
    takes after
    Correct
  • B
    takes in
  • C
    takes back
  • D
    takes off
89
"Choose the appropriate phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. Ravi’s family could never ____________ on his small salary if his wife had not decided to work.
  • A
    get by
    Correct
  • B
    get round
  • C
    get off
  • D
    get after
90
"Choose the appropriate phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. Soon winter _____________ and the nights became misty and chilly.
  • A
    set in
    Correct
  • B
    set about
  • C
    set off
  • D
    set aside
91
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. Take the bull by the horns
  • A
    Act positively even if one is feeling angry
  • B
    Grapple with a difficult situation without avoiding it
    Correct
  • C
    Try to overpower a pull by catching hold of its horns
  • D
    Having a bull fight
92
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. To think ‘one is cat’s whiskers’
  • A
    Think one is wonderful
    Correct
  • B
    Think one is elegant like a cat
  • C
    To think of oneself as a difficult person
  • D
    Think one is honest
93
"Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. Talk shop
  • A
    Talk about work
    Correct
  • B
    Talk about one’s shop
  • C
    Talk about shopping
  • D
    Talk about shops in general
94
Selecting the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. It is __________ to note that the government has at last decided to revise the salaries of railway linesman.
  • A
    heartning
    Correct
  • B
    hearten
  • C
    hearty
  • D
    heartfelt
95
Selecting the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. We need to be careful to ensure that our project is on the right __________.
  • A
    route
  • B
    track
    Correct
  • C
    road
  • D
    way
96
Selecting the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. With two school going children to manage, some of my mornings are quite ___________.
  • A
    quick
  • B
    rushed
    Correct
  • C
    racy
  • D
    jumpy
97
Selecting the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. Some of the areas in the hills are quite ______________ populated. You many not find a village for miles.
  • A
    sparsely
    Correct
  • B
    heavily
  • C
    densely
  • D
    quietly
98
Selecting the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. Most of the youngsters today are ____________ in social networking in all of their free time.
  • A
    engaged
    Correct
  • B
    implicated
  • C
    involved
  • D
    employed
99
Select the word which means the opposite of the given word. "Miserable"
  • A
    happy
    Correct
  • B
    frightened
  • C
    painful
  • D
    angry
100
Select the word which means the opposite of the given word. "Unique"
  • A
    well-to-do
  • B
    special
  • C
    uncommon
  • D
    common–place
    Correct
101
If \(\phi \) is an acute angle such that \(\tan \phi = \frac{2}{3}\), then evaluate \(\left( {\frac{{1 + \tan \phi }}{{\sin \phi + \cos \phi }}} \right)\left( {\frac{{1 - \cot \phi }}{{\sec \phi + \cos ec\phi }}} \right)\)
  • A
    \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • B
    \(\frac{4}{{\sqrt {13} }}\)
  • C
    \( - \frac{1}{5}\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(\frac{{ - 4}}{{\sqrt {13} }}\)
102
The value of the expression \(\frac{1}{{\sqrt {11 - 2\sqrt {30} } }} - \frac{3}{{\sqrt {7 - 2\sqrt {10} } }} - \frac{4}{{\sqrt {8 + 4\sqrt 3 } }}\) after simplification is
  • A
    1
  • B
    \(\sqrt {30} \)
  • C
    \(2\sqrt {10} \)
  • D
    0
    Correct
103
The minimum value of the polynomial \(p(x) = 3{x^2} - 5x + 2\) is
  • A
    \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • B
    \(\frac{1}{{12}}\)
  • C
    \( - \frac{1}{6}\)
  • D
    \( - \frac{1}{{12}}\)
    Correct
104
For the equation \({\left| x \right|^2} + \left| x \right| - 6 = 0\),
  • A
    The sum of the roots is -1
  • B
    The product of the roots is -4
    Correct
  • C
    The product of the roots is -6
  • D
    There are four roots
105
In \(\Delta ABC\), D is a point on BC such that 3BD=BD. If each side of the triangle is 12 cm, then AD equals
  • A
    \(4\sqrt {11} cm\)
  • B
    \(4\sqrt 5 cm\)
  • C
    \(4\sqrt 6 cm\)
  • D
    \(4\sqrt 7 cm\)
    Correct
106
In \(\Delta ABC\), \(\overline {XY} \) is parallel to \(\overline {AC} \) and divides the triangle into the two parts of equal area. Then the \(\frac{{AX}}{{AB}}\) equals
Question 106 figure 1
  • A
    \(\frac{{\sqrt 2 + 1}}{2}\)
  • B
    \(\frac{{\sqrt 2 - 1}}{2}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{2 + \sqrt 2 }}{2}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{{2 - \sqrt 2 }}{2}\)
    Correct
107
P is a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle with side a units. If \({p_1}\), \({p_2}\) and \({p_3}\) are the distances of P from the three sides of the triangle, them \({p_1} + {p_2} + {p_3}\)
  • A
    Is more than a units
  • B
    Equals \(\frac{{a\sqrt 3 }}{2}\) units
    Correct
  • C
    Cannot be determined unless the location of P is specified
  • D
    Equals \(\frac{{2a}}{3}\) units
108
In how many ways can a given square be cut into two congruent trapeziums?
  • A
    More than 12
    Correct
  • B
    Exactly 8
  • C
    Exactly 12
  • D
    Exactly 4
109
In how many ways can you partition 6 into ordered summands? (For example, 3 can be partitioned in 3 ways as : 1+2, 2+1, 1+1+1)
  • A
    33
  • B
    31
    Correct
  • C
    29
  • D
    27
110
The number of integers n (<20) for which \({n^2} - 3n + 3\) is a perfect square is
  • A
    3
  • B
    2
  • C
    1
  • D
    0
    Correct
111
For positive x and y, the LCM is 225 and HCF is 15. There
  • A
    Are exactly three such pair
  • B
    Is exactly one such pair
  • C
    Are exactly four such pair
  • D
    Are exactly two such pair
    Correct
112
In the figure, a semi-circle with centre O is drawn on AB. The ratio of the larger shaded area to the smaller shaded area is
Question 112 figure 1
  • A
    \(\frac{{4\pi - 3\sqrt 3 }}{{2\pi - 3\sqrt 3 }}\)
    Correct
  • B
    \(\frac{{3\pi - 2\sqrt 3 }}{{2\pi - 2\sqrt 3 }}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{4\pi - 3\sqrt 3 }}{{3\pi - 3\sqrt 3 }}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{{4\pi - 2\sqrt 3 }}{{2\pi - 2\sqrt 3 }}\)
113
In\(\Delta ABC\), angle B is obtuse. The smallest circle which covers the triangle is the
  • A
    Circle with AC as diameter
  • B
    Circle with BC as diameter
  • C
    Circumcircle
    Correct
  • D
    Circle with AB as diameter
114
Which of the number can be expressed as the sum of square of two positive integers, as well three positive integers?
  • A
    192
  • B
    250
    Correct
  • C
    75
  • D
    100
115
If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC such that \(\Delta ABC\), \(\Delta BPC\) and \(\Delta CPA\) have the same area, then P must be
  • A
    In centre of \(\Delta ABC\)
  • B
    Centroid of \(\Delta ABC\)
    Correct
  • C
    Ortho centre of \(\Delta ABC\)
  • D
    Circum centre of \(\Delta ABC\)
116
If the line segments joining the midpoints of the consecutive side of a quadrilateral ABCD form a rectangle then ABCD must be a
  • A
    Rhombus
  • B
    Square
  • C
    All of these
    Correct
  • D
    Kite
117
\({C_1}\) and \({C_2}\) are two circles in a plane. If N is the total number of common tangents, then which of the following is wrong?
  • A
    N=4 when \({C_1}\) and \({C_2}\) are disjoint
  • B
    N=2 when \({C_1}\) and \({C_2}\) interest but do not touch
  • C
    N can never be more than 4
  • D
    When \({C_1}\) and \({C_2}\) touch then N must be 3
    Correct
118
The sides of a triangle are of lengths 20, 21 and 29 units. The sum of the lengths of altitudes will be
  • A
    49 units
  • B
    70 units
  • C
    \(\frac{{1609}}{{21}}\) units
  • D
    \(\frac{{1609}}{{19}}\) units
    Correct
119
If a, b, c be the 4th, 7th and 10th term of an AP respectively, then the sum of the roots of the equation \(a{x^2} - 2bx + c = 0\)
  • A
    is \(\frac{{c + a}}{a}\)
    Correct
  • B
    cannot be determined unless some more information is given about the AP
  • C
    is \( - \frac{{2b}}{a}\)
  • D
    is \( - \frac{b}{a}\)
120
PQRS is the smallest square whose vertices are on the respective sides of the square ABCD. The ration of the area of PQRS to ABCD is
  • A
    \(1:\sqrt 2 \)
  • B
    it is 1:3
  • C
    it is 1:2
    Correct
  • D
    it is 2:3
121
A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/h. Which of the following statements is correct?
  • A
    The car may have an acceleration even if it is moving along a straight path
  • B
    The acceleration of the car is definitely zero
  • C
    The car has an acceleration only if it is moving along a curved path
    Correct
  • D
    The car may not have an acceleration even if it is moving along a curved path
122
A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor with a velocity 2 m/s and then let go. The box moves 5 m on the floor before coming to rest. What must be the frictional force acting on the box?
  • A
    8 N
    Correct
  • B
    20 N
  • C
    4 N
  • D
    2 N
123
Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, are approaching each other under their mutual gravitational attraction. When the separation between the objects is 100 km, the acceleration of the lighter object is \(1\,m/{s^2}\). When the separation between them is 25 km, the acceleration of the heavier object is
  • A
    \(2\,m/{s^2}\)
  • B
    \(4\,m/{s^2}\)
    Correct
  • C
    \(1\,m/{s^2}\)
  • D
    \(8\,m/{s^2}\)
124
A spring balance measures the weight of an object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of 0.08 N when the object is completely immersed in water. If the value of acceleration due to gravity is \(10\,m/{s^2}\), the volume of the object is
  • A
    \(20\,c{m^{.3}}\)
  • B
    \(200\,c{m^3}\)
  • C
    \(80\,c{m^3}\)
  • D
    \(2\,c{m^3}\)
    Correct
125
A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass 1 kg for 2 s, which was initially at rest. What is the work done on the object by the force?
  • A
    200 J
    Correct
  • B
    180 J
  • C
    16 J
  • D
    20 J
126
Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is based on the principle of
  • A
    Multiple reflection
    Correct
  • B
    SONAR
  • C
    Echo
  • D
    Reverberation
127
A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface that separates medium 1 from medium 2. Let \({{\text{v}}_1}\)and \({{\text{v}}_2}\) represent the velocity of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. Also let \({n_{12}}\) and \({n_{21}}\) represent the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 and refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1, respectively. If i and r denote the angle of incidence and angle of refraction, then
  • A
    \(\frac{{\sin i}}{{\sin r}} = {n_{21}} = \frac{{{v_1}}}{{{v_2}}}\)
    Correct
  • B
    \(\frac{{\sin i}}{{\sin r}} = {n_{12}} = \frac{{{v_1}}}{{{v_2}}}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{\sin i}}{{\sin r}} = {n_{21}} = \frac{{{v_2}}}{{{v_1}}}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{{\sin i}}{{\sin r}} = {n_{12}} = \frac{{{v_1}}}{{{v_2}}}\)
128
A convex lens has a focal length of 0.5 m. It has to be combined with a second lens, so that the combination has a power of 1.5 dioptre. Which of the following could be the second lens?
  • A
    A concave lens of focal length 2 m
    Correct
  • B
    A convex lens of focal length 2 m
  • C
    Another convex lens of focal length 0.5 m
  • D
    A concave lens of focal length 0.5 m
129
Which of the following statements is correct?
  • A
    A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
  • B
    A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
    Correct
  • C
    A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
  • D
    A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
130
Consider two conducting plates A and B, between which the potential difference is 5 V, plate A being at a higher potential. A proton and an electron are released at plates A and B respectively. The two particles then move towards the opposite plates – the proton to plate B and the electron to plate A. which one will have a larger velocity when they reach their respective destination plates?
  • A
    The proton will have the larger velocity
  • B
    The electron will have the larger velocity
  • C
    None will be able to reach the destination point
  • D
    Both will have the same velocity
    Correct
131
Which one of the following statements best describes the nature of the field lines due to a bar magnet?
  • A
    Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Only one field line passes through a point
    Correct
  • B
    Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Any number of field lines can pass through a point
  • C
    Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Any number of field lines can pass through a point
  • D
    Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Only one field line passes through a point
132
Which of the following statements is correct?
  • A
    DC generator generates a higher voltage
  • B
    AC generator generates a higher voltage
  • C
    There is a split-ring commutator in a DC generator but not in an AC generator
    Correct
  • D
    AC generates has a permanent magnet whereas a DC generator has an electromagnet
133
A star produces its energy through the process of
  • A
    Gravitational attraction between different parts of the star
  • B
    Nuclear fusion
    Correct
  • C
    Chemical reaction
  • D
    Nuclear fission
134
Which of the following are the correct examples of matter?
  • A
    Silver foil, hot air and chalk
    Correct
  • B
    Glass bottle, water and noise
  • C
    Sand, oxygen and light flash
  • D
    Air, wood and vacuum
135
Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) contain 100 \(c{m^3}\) of water each at \({20^\circ }C\). To the water in the beaker (X) 100g of water at \({0^\circ }C\) was added and stirred to mix thoroughly. To the beaker (Y) 100g of ice at \({0^\circ }C\) was added and stirred till it melted into water. The water in the beaker (Y) will be
  • A
    Hotter than water in beaker X
  • B
    Lighter than water in better X
  • C
    Colder than water in beaker X
    Correct
  • D
    Heavier than water in beaker X
136
At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be prepared by dissolving 21.0 g of it in 100 g of water. The maximum amount of X which can be dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 62.0 g. An attempt is made to dissolve 50.0 g of X in 100 g of water at 313 K. A. All the 50.0 g of X will dissolve at 313 K B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissolved C. Solubility of X decreases with increases of temperature D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 21.0 g of X will crystallize out. Which of the above statements are correct?
  • A
    A and D
    Correct
  • B
    A and B
  • C
    B and C
  • D
    A, C and D
137
Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 protons respectively. If the number of neutrons in them happen to be 14 and 8 respectively; the formula unit mass for the compound between A and B unit would be:
  • A
    43
  • B
    102
    Correct
  • C
    112
  • D
    75
138
The reaction of burning of carbon in oxygen is represented by the equation: \({{\text{C}}_{{\text{(s)}}}}{\text{ + }}\,{{\text{O}}_{{\text{2(g)}}}} \to {\text{C}}{{\text{O}}_{{\text{2(g)}}}}{\text{ + }}\,{\text{Heat + }}\,{\text{Light}}\) When 9.0 g of solid carbon in burnt in 16.0 g of oxygen gas, 22.0 g of carbon dioxide is produced. The mass of carbon dioxide gas formed on burning of 3.0 g of carbon in 32.0 g of oxygen would be (Note : atomic mass of C=12.0 u, O=16.0 u)
  • A
    11.00 g
    Correct
  • B
    6.60 g
  • C
    7.33 g
  • D
    8.25 g
139
An atom of an element (X) has its K, L and M shells filled with some electrons. It reacts with sodium metal to form a compound NaX. The number of electrons in the M shell of the atom (X) will be
  • A
    7
    Correct
  • B
    2
  • C
    8
  • D
    1
140
Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to produce water. The reaction is represented by the equation: \({O_2}(g) + {H_2}(g) \to {H_2}O(g)\) The above reaction is an example of A. Oxidation of hydrogen B. Reduction of oxygen C. Reduction of hydrogen D. Redox reaction
  • A
    (A), (B) and (D)
    Correct
  • B
    (A), (C) and (D)
  • C
    (A), (B) and (C)
  • D
    (B), (C) and (D)
141
Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II
Question 141 figure 1
  • A
    (a) ii (b) iv (c) i (d) iii
  • B
    (a) iv (b) iii (c) i (d) ii
    Correct
  • C
    (a) iii (b) ii (c) iv (d) i
  • D
    (a) iii (b) i (c) iv (d) ii
142
Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidic strength for equimolar aqueous solutions of HCI, \({H_2}S{O_4},N{H_4}OH\) and NaOH
  • A
    HCI<\(N{H_4}OH\)<NaOH<\({H_2}S{O_4}\)
  • B
    HCI <\({H_2}S{O_4}\)<\(N{H_4}OH\)< NaOH
  • C
    NaOH <\(N{H_4}OH\)< HCI <\({H_2}S{O_4}\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(N{H_4}OH\)< NaOH <\({H_2}S{O_4}\)< HCI
143
Metals like sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium are extracted by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state. These metals are not extracted by reduction of their oxides with carbon because A. Reduction with carbon is very expensive B. Carbon readily makes alloys with these metals C. Carbon has less affinity for oxygen than these metals D. Carbon is a weaker reducing agent than these metals
  • A
    (A) and (B)
  • B
    (C) and (D)
    Correct
  • C
    (D) and (A)
  • D
    (B) and (C)
144
A hydrocarbon has a molecular formula as \({C_6}{H_{12}}\). It does not react with hydrogen to give \({C_6}{H_{14}}\) nor does it react with chlorine to give \({C_6}{H_{12}}C{l_2}\). The hydrocarbon \({C_6}{H_{12}}\) is A. A saturated hydrocarbon B. An unsaturated hydrocarbon C. An open chain hydrocarbon D. A cyclo-alkane
  • A
    (B) and (D)
  • B
    (D) and (A)
  • C
    (C) and (D)
    Correct
  • D
    (A) and (B)
145
An element with atomic number 17 is placed in the group 17 of the long form periodic table. Element with atomic number 9 is placed above it. Element with atomic number 16 is placed left and with atomic number 18 is placed right to it. Which of the following statements are correct? A. Valency of the element with atomic number 18 is zero B. Elements with same valency will have atomic number 16, 17 and 18 C. Valency of elements with atomic number 9, 17 and 35 is one D. Element with atomic number 17 is more electronegative than element with atomic numbers 16 and 35.
  • A
    (B), (C) and (D)
  • B
    (A), (B) and (C)
  • C
    (A), (B) and (D)
  • D
    (A), (C) and (D)
    Correct
146
An organic compound is a clear liquid having a molecular formula \({C_4}{H_8}O\). It has an open chain structure. Without any carbon-carbon double bond. The compound can be A. An alcohol B. An ester C. An aldehyde D. A ketone
  • A
    (B) and (D)
  • B
    (C) and (D)
    Correct
  • C
    (A) and (B)
  • D
    (D) and (A)
147
Which of the following is known as energy currency of cell?
  • A
    Pyruvate
  • B
    Adenosine triphosphate
    Correct
  • C
    Glucose
  • D
    Adenosine diphosphate
148
An analysis of soil sample revealed 0.1 mg of a pesticide was found in grams. However in the adipose tissue of birds the concentration was 2 mg. The reason for this is the phenomenon known as
  • A
    Bio-multiplication
  • B
    Bio-absorption
  • C
    Bio-translocation
  • D
    Bio-magnification
    Correct
149
Diseases that spread by vectors such as mosquitoes are
  • A
    Encephalitis and Malaria
    Correct
  • B
    Tuberculosis and sleeping sickness
  • C
    Syphilis and AIDS
  • D
    Kala-azar and SARS
150
Which one of the following is correct route for passage of sperms?
  • A
    Testes – vasdeferens – urethra – seminal vesicles
  • B
    Testes – vasdeferens – urethra – penis
    Correct
  • C
    Testes – scrotum – vasdeferens – urethra – penis
  • D
    Scrotum – testes – urethra – vasdeferens – penis
151
Suggest which among the following is NOT a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum
  • A
    Biogenesis of membranes
  • B
    Digestion/egestion of foreign materials outside the cell
    Correct
  • C
    Detoxification of poisons and drugs
  • D
    Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
152
In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by bacteria and converted into ammonia. Ammonia is further converted into order forms of nitrogen. At the end of the cycle it returns to the it returns to the atmosphere by the process of:
  • A
    Denitrification
    Correct
  • B
    Nitrification
  • C
    Assimilation
  • D
    Ammonification
153
Cell organelles that are involved in the waste disposal system of the cell are:
  • A
    Chromosomes
  • B
    Lysosomes
    Correct
  • C
    Golgi apparatus
  • D
    Ribosomes
154
Sequence of events which occur in a reflex action we
  • A
    Effector muscle – CNS – sensory nerve – sensory organ
  • B
    Receptor organ – sensory neuron – CNS – motor neuron – effector muscle
    Correct
  • C
    Receptor – motor neuron – CNS – sensory neuron – effector muscle
  • D
    CNS – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector muscle
155
Movement of food in digestive tract is due to
  • A
    Peristalsis
    Correct
  • B
    Secretion
  • C
    Concentration gradient
  • D
    Villi
156
A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is crossed another pea plant with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds. What would be the nature of seed in the first generation (F1 generation)?
  • A
    Wrinkled yellow
  • B
    Round green
  • C
    Wrinkled green
  • D
    Round yellow
    Correct
157
Some organisms are sensitive to different levels of air pollution and are used as pollution-indicators. Suggest which among the following fits into the category
  • A
    Bacteria
  • B
    Fungi
  • C
    Fresh water algae
  • D
    Lichens
    Correct
158
A group of laboratory mice having tails are bred together and their progeny studied. The progeny had tails. However, scientist surgically removed the tails of the progeny and again bred them for four successive generations. What do you think would be the nature of the new progeny?
  • A
    All mice born will have no tails
  • B
    The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1:4
  • C
    All mice born will have tails
    Correct
  • D
    The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1:3
159
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
  • A
    Tendons are tissues with great strength and flexibility
  • B
    Cartilage smoothens bone surface at joints
  • C
    Tendons connect muscles to bones
  • D
    Bones are connected to each other by tendons
    Correct
160
Which of the following statements in NOT true about evolution?
  • A
    Evolution is not always progressive series of changes that occur in organism
  • B
    Time dating and fossil studies help in understanding of evolution
  • C
    Human beings have not evolved from chimpanzees
    Correct
  • D
    Evolution leads to generation of diverse forms of life
161
Consider the following events related to the French Revolution and identify the correct chronological response from the options given thereafter: A. Convocation of Estates General B. Storming of the Bastille C. Peasant revolts in the countryside D. Third Estate forms National Assembly
  • A
    b, a, c, d
  • B
    a, d, b, c
    Correct
  • C
    a, c, d, b
  • D
    d, b, c, a
162
consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: A. The colonies in the Caribbean were important suppliers of tobacco, indigo, sugar and coffee. B. The slave trade began in the 15th century. C. French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the flourishing slave trade D. Slavery was finally abolished in the French colonies in 1848
  • A
    b, c, a
  • B
    a, b, d
  • C
    b, c, d
  • D
    a, c, d
    Correct
163
match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter: List I I. Liberals II. Radicals III. Conservatives IV. Socialists Lists II a. Government to be based on the majority of country’s population b. The past has to be respected and change has to brought about through a slow process c. Property to be controlled by society as a whole d. Men of property mainly should have the right to vote
  • A
    I–b, II–d, III–a, IV–c
  • B
    I–a, II–b, III–c, IV–d
  • C
    I –c, II–b, III–a, IV–d
  • D
    I–d, II–a, III–b, IV–c
    Correct
164
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: Nazism became a mass movement after the Great Depression. Statement II: After 1929, banks collapsed and businesses shut down, worker lost their jobs and the middle classes were threatened with destitution.
  • A
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  • B
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
  • C
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
  • D
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
    Correct
165
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: According to the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, nomadic pastoralists were forced to live only in notified village settlements Statement II: Colonial state wanted to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms
  • A
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  • B
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
    Correct
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  • D
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
166
Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Question 166 figure 1
  • A
    a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
    Correct
  • B
    a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
  • C
    a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
  • D
    a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
167
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: A. Cricket, in Victorian England, Was an all season leisure game for aristocrats B. The captain of the team was traditionally a batsman in Victorian England as amateurs played only as batsman C. Len Hutton was the first professional Yorkshire batsman to lead the English test team D. There was a clear social hierarchy between the batsman and the bowlers in Victorian England
  • A
    B, C and D
  • B
    A, B and C
  • C
    A, B and D
    Correct
  • D
    A, C and D
168
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: Campaign for dress reforms by women started with the development of the suffrage movement Statement II: Dress reform emphasized differences between men and women and established the status of women as obedient and dutiful
  • A
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  • C
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
    Correct
  • D
    Both Statement I and Statement are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
169
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: Schools became an important place for political and cultural battles in Vietnam under the French rule. Statement II: Teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum but sometimes modified the text and criticized what was stated.
  • A
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
  • B
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  • D
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
    Correct
170
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: In 1921, as the Non-Cooperation movement spread, houses of talukdars were looted and merchants were attacked. Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi had declared that tax was not to be paid and land was to be redistributed amongst the poor.
  • A
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    Correct
  • B
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement is the correct explanation of Statement I
  • D
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
171
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: In Victorian Britain, the upper classes – the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie – preferred things produced by machine. Statement II: Machine goods were mass produced and were easily available.
  • A
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  • C
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
  • D
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
    Correct
172
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: In the 19th century, London was a colossal city. Statement II: London had many large factories.
  • A
    Statement I is false and Statement II is true
  • B
    Statement I is true and Statement II is false
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  • D
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
    Correct
173
Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the response given thereafter: People of depressed classes found it difficult to find housing in Bombay during the late nineteenth century.
  • A
    Most people of depressed classes were kept out of chawls
  • B
    Wages of depressed classes were usually less than that of others
    Correct
  • C
    People belonging to the depressed classes had fixed space allotted per family
  • D
    Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards average space per person
174
Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given thereafter: In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
  • A
    Nationalist newspapers grew in numbers and needed to be controlled
  • B
    After the Revolt of 1857 the British wanted to clamp down the Indian press
    Correct
  • C
    British rule needed to be celebrated by journals and papers
  • D
    Englishmen criticized the printed matter objectionable to the Government
175
By the 18th century, which of the following commodities were produced on large plantations in America by slave labour and exported to other countries.
  • A
    Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges
  • B
    Cash crops such as sugar and cotton
  • C
    Animal products such as wool and beef
  • D
    Grains such as wheat and barley
    Correct
176
My stems are succulent, my leaves are mostly thick In which category of the following vegetation type I am largely found?
  • A
    Tropical thorn forest and scrubs
    Correct
  • B
    Montane forest
  • C
    Tropical deciduous forest
  • D
    Mangrove forest
177
The following diagram shows the general land use category in India. Identify the shaded category.
Question 177 figure 1
  • A
    Net sown area
  • B
    Forest
    Correct
  • C
    Barren and waste land
  • D
    Current Fallow
178
Assertion (A): Since 1981, growth rate of population in India has started declining gradually Reason (R): Birth rate is declining select the correct option from the given alternatives
  • A
    A is false and R is true
  • B
    Both A and R are false
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    Correct
179
Which of the following diagram shows the approximate relief of India around, \({20^\circ }N\) latitude from Daman to Bhubaneswar?
  • A
    Option A
  • B
    Option B
  • C
    Option C
    Correct
  • D
    Option D
180
Identify the right pair from the following:
Question 180 figure 1
  • A
    A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    Correct
  • B
    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
  • C
    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • D
    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
181
The peninsular part of India experiences peak summers earlier than northern India
  • A
    Cold waves from central Asia sweeps through the northern plains during that time
  • B
    There is less rainfall in the peninsular India during that time
  • C
    Clouds do not form in those months
  • D
    Due to apparent northward movement of the sum, the global heat belts shift northwards
    Correct
182
National Highway-7 is the longest national highway in India, which traverses between Varanasi and KanyaKumari. Identify the places onroute from North to South
  • A
    Jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bangalore – Madurai
    Correct
  • B
    Jabalpur- Nagpur – Bangalore – Hyderabad – Madurai
  • C
    Nagpur – Jablapur – Bangalore – Hyderabad – Madurai
  • D
    Nagpur – Jabalpur – Hyderabad – Bangalore – Madurai
183
The process of manufacturing of cotton garment is depicted in the following flow diagram. Identify the correct sequence. A. Dyeing and finishing B. Fiber production C. Garment manufacture D. Weaving
Question 183 figure 1
  • A
    1B, 2A, 3C, 4D
  • B
    1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
  • C
    1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
    Correct
  • D
    1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
184
Match the fresh water lakes on the map of India (1, II, III, IV) with their respective names. A. Bhimtal B. Loktal C. Barapani D. Dal lake
Question 184 figure 1
  • A
    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • B
    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    Correct
  • C
    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D
    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
185
A major line of latitude that passes through Mizoram also passes through which one of the following state ________.
Question 185 figure 1
  • A
    Jharkhand
    Correct
  • B
    Odisha
  • C
    Bihar
  • D
    Nagaland
186
Observe the following graph of a particular place. It is situated at an altitude of 224 meters above Mean Sea Level and at latitude \(26^\circ 18'N\) Identify the type of natural vegetation most likely to be found in this place
  • A
    Mangrove forest
  • B
    Tropical evergreen forest
  • C
    Tropical thorn forest
    Correct
  • D
    Montane forest
187
Identify the state from given names which has all the following characteristics A. Its annual rainfall is 200-400 cm B. Most of the area is covered under with alluvial soil C. Rice is the predominant crop of this state
Question 187 figure 1
  • A
    Assam
    Correct
  • B
    Tamil Nadu
  • C
    Punjab
  • D
    Odisha
188
With the help of given map identify the dates of advancing Monsoon in India.
Question 188 figure 1
  • A
    I- 1 June, II- 10 June, III-1 July
  • B
    I- 1 June, II- 10 June, III- 15 July
    Correct
  • C
    I- 15 June, II- 15 July, III-15 August
  • D
    I- 15 July, II- 10 June, III-1 June
189
Match the places with altitude
  • A
    I- C, II- A, III- B, IV-D
  • B
    I- B, II- A, III- C, IV- D
  • C
    I- B, II- D, III-C, IV- A
    Correct
  • D
    I- D, II- A, III- C, IV-B
190
What was the local time in Tokyo situated at \(139^\circ 45'\) East longitude, when the President of India was hoisting the Indian National Flag in the presence of Japanese Prime Minister at 10 a.m. in New Delhi? The viewer in Japan were watching live telecast of this event.
  • A
    6.11 a.m.
  • B
    1.49 a.m.
  • C
    2.49 a.m.
  • D
    1.49 p.m.
    Correct
191
The following statements are about democracy in the contemporary world. A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th century B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout the world C. All the member states of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are democracies D. All the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are democracies
  • A
    B, C and D
  • B
    A, B and C
  • C
    A, B and D
  • D
    A and B
    Correct
192
Match the following A. Abraham Lincoln (i) How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny if for long, we will do so by putting our political democracy in peril. B. Mahatma Gandhi (ii) Democracy is government of the people, by the people and for the people. C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (iii) The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer. It means the ending of poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity. D. JawaharLal Nehru (iv) I shall work for an India in which … all communities shall live in perfect harmony. There can be no room in such an India for the curse of untouchability.
  • A
    A- I, B- II, C- III, D- IV
  • B
    A- I, B- III, C- IV, D- II
  • C
    A- II, B- I, C- IV, D- III
  • D
    A- II, B- IV, C- I, D- III
    Correct
193
Parliament of India consists of
  • A
    President, RajyaSabha and LokSabha
    Correct
  • B
    RajyaSabha and Lok Sabha
  • C
    Election Commission, RajyaSabha and Lok Sabha
  • D
    President, Election Commission, RajyaSabha and LokSabha
194
Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic form of government?
  • A
    Universal adult franchise
  • B
    Majority rule
  • C
    Rights of minorities
  • D
    Majoritarianism
    Correct
195
Which of the following institutions have reserved seats for women? A. Lok Sabha B. RajyaSabha C. Legislative Assemblies D. Municipalities E. Panchayats
  • A
    A, C, D, E
  • B
    B, C, D, E
  • C
    D and E
    Correct
  • D
    E only
196
The following are major changes that occurred in agriculture in the post-Independent India. A. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds B. Introduction of Genetically modified (GM) crops C. Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides D. Organic farming
  • A
    A and C
    Correct
  • B
    B and C
  • C
    A and B
  • D
    B and D
197
Information relating to which of the following aspects are used to determine the human development in a country?
  • A
    Health, education and poverty
    Correct
  • B
    Inequality, health and education
  • C
    Women’s health, education and income
  • D
    Health, education and income
198
A father in a farm produces 100 kg of paddy in one acre of land, during every season. One year, his son joined him in farming. Which of the following definitely indicates disguised unemployment?
  • A
    Output remains at 100 kilograms
    Correct
  • B
    Output increased to 200 kilograms
  • C
    Output increased to 150 kilograms
  • D
    Output increased to 250 kilograms
199
How membership in a Self Help Group helps a poor rural woman?
  • A
    To overcome the problem of lack of collateral as borrowing is based on the group
    Correct
  • B
    Facilitates her how to help herself in daily work
  • C
    To work together in factories and get regular employment
  • D
    To get free money from the government
200
Though consumers in India has the right to information about the following aspects of a product, the producer need not inform the consumer?
  • A
    Date of production
  • B
    Date of expiry
  • C
    Address of the producer
  • D
    The production process
    Correct