NTSE Stage-2 Question Paper 2015

NTSE Stage-2 Question Paper 2015

This is NTSE Stage-2 Question Paper 2015.. There are 200 questions in this test with each question having around four answer choices.

Questions & Answers

1
If RESPOND is coded as EMPOTDS and SENSE is coded as FRODT, then CALRIFY will be coded as
  • A
    ZEJQBKD
    Correct
  • B
    ZEJSBMD
  • C
    ZDLSBKD
  • D
    EDTOJME
2
Five friends A,B, C, D and E are standing in a row facing south but not necessarily in the same order. Only B is between A and E, C is immediate right to E and, D is immediate left to A. On the basis of above information, which of the following statements is definitely true?
  • A
    A is second to the left of C
  • B
    B is to the right of E
  • C
    B is the left of A
  • D
    D is third to the left to E
    Correct
3
A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organization working in the department of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, lone in each department. Each of seven employees earn different amount. The only bearded employee F works in Administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H, works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. Departments Income A Accounts More than F,B, E B C Accounts Minimum E F Administration Maximum G Administration Wife of A H Income: G >H>A>F,B,E> C Which of the following is a group of females?
  • A
    GHB
  • B
    GCE
  • C
    GCH
    Correct
  • D
    GEH
4
A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organization working in the department of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, lone in each department. Each of seven employees earn different amount. The only bearded employee F works in Administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H, works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. Departments Income A Accounts More than F,B, E B C Accounts Minimum E F Administration Maximum G Administration Wife of A H Income: G >H>A>F,B,E> C In which department do three people work?
  • A
    Accounts
  • B
    Operations or Accounts
  • C
    Data inadequate
    Correct
  • D
    Operations
5
A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organization working in the department of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, lone in each department. Each of seven employees earn different amount. The only bearded employee F works in Administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H, works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. Departments Income A Accounts More than F,B, E B C Accounts Minimum E F Administration Maximum G Administration Wife of A H Income: G >H>A>F,B,E> C What will be the positions of A from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their income?
  • A
    Fourth
  • B
    Third
    Correct
  • C
    Second
  • D
    Fifth
6
A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organization working in the department of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, lone in each department. Each of seven employees earn different amount. The only bearded employee F works in Administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H, works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. Departments Income A Accounts More than F,B, E B C Accounts Minimum E F Administration Maximum G Administration Wife of A H Income: G >H>A>F,B,E> C In which of the following departments does B work?
  • A
    Data inadequate
    Correct
  • B
    Accounts
  • C
    Operations
  • D
    Administration
7
A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organization working in the department of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, lone in each department. Each of seven employees earn different amount. The only bearded employee F works in Administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H, works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. Departments Income A Accounts More than F,B, E B C Accounts Minimum E F Administration Maximum G Administration Wife of A H Income: G >H>A>F,B,E> C Which of the following statements is definitely true?
  • A
    B earns less than A and H
    Correct
  • B
    B earns more than E and C
  • C
    F earns more than B and E
  • D
    B earns less than F and H
8
Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows: Input: these icons were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes Batch I: from sea the out taken were icons these Batch II: from icons these were taken out the sea Batch III: from icons out sea the taken were these Batch IV: from icons out sea these were taken the The pattern followed is as under: In the first step, the word which comes first in the dictionary is placed at the first place and the remaining words are written in a reverse order. In the second step, the word which comes second in the dictionary is placed at the second place and all words except the first and the second are written in a reverse order. The process continues in the same manner to give the pass codes for the subsequent batches. What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a day, if the input is “four of the following five form a group”?
  • A
    A five following form group of the
  • B
    a five following form group the of four
  • C
    A five following form four the of group
  • D
    a five following form four group the of
    Correct
9
Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows: Input: these icons were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes Batch I: from sea the out taken were icons these Batch II: from icons these were taken out the sea Batch III: from icons out sea the taken were these Batch IV: from icons out sea these were taken the The pattern followed is as under: In the first step, the word which comes first in the dictionary is placed at the first place and the remaining words are written in a reverse order. In the second step, the word which comes second in the dictionary is placed at the second place and all words except the first and the second are written in a reverse order. The process continues in the same manner to give the pass codes for the subsequent batches. If the pass code for the Batch IV on a day was ‘back go here people who settle want to’, what was the pass code for the Batch V on that day?
  • A
    Cannot be determined
  • B
    Back go here people settle who want to
  • C
    Back go here people settle to want who
    Correct
  • D
    Back go here people to want settle who
10
Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows: Input: these icons were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes Batch I: from sea the out taken were icons these Batch II: from icons these were taken out the sea Batch III: from icons out sea the taken were these Batch IV: from icons out sea these were taken the The pattern followed is as under: In the first step, the word which comes first in the dictionary is placed at the first place and the remaining words are written in a reverse order. In the second step, the word which comes second in the dictionary is placed at the second place and all words except the first and the second are written in a reverse order. The process continues in the same manner to give the pass codes for the subsequent batches. The pass code for the Batch I on a day was ‘he so used to sell the surplus items’. What was input on the day?
  • A
    he items surplus the sell to used so
  • B
    cannot be determined
    Correct
  • C
    so used to sell the surplus items he
  • D
    Items surplus the sell to used so he
11
What is the total number of triangles and total numbers of squares in the given figure?
Question 11 figure 1
  • A
    32 triangles, 8 squares
  • B
    32 triangles, 10 squares
    Correct
  • C
    28 triangles, 10 squares
  • D
    28 triangles, 8 squares
12
A cube whose two adjacent faces are colouredis cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many those small cubes are not coloured at all?
  • A
    36
    Correct
  • B
    48
  • C
    32
  • D
    24
13
If \(\frac{{54}}{{32}} = 4,\;\;\frac{{36}}{{42}} = 3,\;\;\frac{{92}}{{22}} = 7\) then what is \(\frac{{28}}{{33}}\; = \;?\)
  • A
    9
  • B
    6
  • C
    4
    Correct
  • D
    5
14
In a certain code language ‘poki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’ ; ? Kop jaki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’; ‘ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’; and ‘posur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in this language means ‘Asha’?
  • A
    Ma
  • B
    Kop
  • C
    Ja
    Correct
  • D
    Top
15
A ship navigating in the Indian Ocean is hit by a sea storm and drifts as follows: 40 km North 28 km north-west 36 km west 52 km south and 29 km south east. The ship had finally drifted in direction from its original position.
  • A
    West
  • B
    South
  • C
    South West
    Correct
  • D
    South East
16
Four diagrams marked A, B, C and D are given below. The one that best illustrates the relationship among three given classes: Women, Teachers, Doctors
Question 16 figure 1
  • A
    A
  • B
    C
    Correct
  • C
    B
  • D
    D
17
Identify the missing number in the following sequence 2, 17, 52, ___, 206
  • A
    184
  • B
    85
  • C
    73
  • D
    113
    Correct
18
Select the missing number
Question 18 figure 1
  • A
    425
  • B
    241
  • C
    184
    Correct
  • D
    210
19
Select the missing number in the following sequence 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, ?, 195, 210
  • A
    120, 132
    Correct
  • B
    123, 135
  • C
    135, 144
  • D
    117, 123
20
Find the number that does not belong to the group : 111, 331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284
  • A
    551
  • B
    263
  • C
    331
  • D
    383
    Correct
21
Which letter replaces the question mark"?"
Question 21 figure 1
  • A
    L
  • B
    P
  • C
    N
    Correct
  • D
    R
22
Certain blank spaces are left in the following sequence. Which is the group of letters given below, will complete the sequence? c__bba__cab__ac__ab__ac
  • A
    babec
  • B
    acbcb
    Correct
  • C
    bcacb
  • D
    abebe
23
A boat starts with the speed of 1 km per hour. After every 1 km, the speed of boat becomes twice. How much will be the average speed of the boat at the end of journey of 2.5 km?
  • A
    \(\frac{{25}}{{1.5125}}\)
  • B
    \(\frac{{2.5}}{{1.50}}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{2.5}}{{1.625}}\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(\frac{{2.5}}{{1.75}}\)
24
Using the total number of alphabets in your solution as a parameter, find the number that represents G is. A – 0, B – 0, C – 2, D – 2, E, – 1, F – 2 G – ?
  • A
    5
    Correct
  • B
    2
  • C
    3
  • D
    4
25
Rs. 1000 is given to A, B and C in some ratio. A is wrongly given double and C is wrongly given half, which is Rs. 500 and Rs. 250 respectively. How much is given to B?
  • A
    750
  • B
    250
    Correct
  • C
    None of these
  • D
    500
26
Given that the total cost of 5 erasers, 7 sharpeners and 9 pencils in Rs. 100 and the total cost of 2 erasers 6 sharpeners and 10 pencils is Rs. 80. What is the total cost (in Rs.) of one eraser one sharpener and one pencil?
  • A
    20
  • B
    10
  • C
    Data not sufficient
  • D
    15
    Correct
27
Renu went to the market between 7 am and 8 am. The angle between the hour-hand and the minute hand was \(90^\circ \). She returned home between 7 am and 8 am. Then also the angle between the minute-hand and hour-hand was 90°. At what time (nearest to second) did Renu leave and return home
  • A
    7 h 19 m 24 s and 7 h 52 m 14 s
  • B
    7 h 18 m 35 s and 7 h 51 m 24 s
  • C
    7 h 21 m 49 s and 7 h 54 m 33 s
    Correct
  • D
    7 h 20 m 42 s and 7 h 53 m 11 s
28
Stimulant : Activity : : ?
  • A
    Diagnosis : Treatment
  • B
    Symptom : Disease
  • C
    Fertilizer : Growth
    Correct
  • D
    Food : Hunger
29
Choose the missing number from among the four alternatives:
Question 29 figure 1
  • A
    15
  • B
    40
  • C
    20
    Correct
  • D
    25
30
From among the four alternatives given below, which number replaces the question mark?
Question 30 figure 1
  • A
    10
    Correct
  • B
    23
  • C
    18
  • D
    9
31
From among the four alternatives given below, which letter replaces in the given figure the question mark?
Question 31 figure 1
  • A
    B
    Correct
  • B
    S
  • C
    A
  • D
    Y
32
Choose the correct mirror-image most closely resembles the word source, from the four given alternatives.“source”
  • A
    Option A
  • B
    Option B
  • C
    Option C
  • D
    Option D
    Correct
33
In the probelm figure a unfolded cuboids is given. Choose from the four given alternative box that will be formed when problem figure is folded.
Question 33 figure 1
  • A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • B
    2 and 3 only
  • C
    1 and 2 only
    Correct
  • D
    1 only
34
A work can be completed by 40 workers in 40 days. If 5 workers leave every 10
  • A
    56.44
  • B
    56.66
    Correct
  • C
    54.66
  • D
    55.66
35
From among the four alternatives given below, which figure replaces the question mark ‘?’.
Question 35 figure 1
  • A
    Option A
    Correct
  • B
    Option B
  • C
    Option C
  • D
    Option D
36
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows, three persons are sitting in each row E is not at end of any row D is second to the left of F C, the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally opposite to D B is the neighbour of F Who are sitting in each column?
  • A
    A and F; D and E; and B and C
  • B
    B and D; A and C; and E and F
  • C
    A and D; E and F; and B and C
  • D
    A and D; B and E; and F and C
    Correct
37
The sum of the incomes of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of incomes of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the incomes of B and D. Whose income is the highest?
  • A
    B
    Correct
  • B
    D
  • C
    C
  • D
    A
38
A letter number series is given with one or more terms missing as shown below. Choose the alternative next in the sequence. A4X, D9U, G16R, .........
  • A
    K25P
    Correct
  • B
    J25P
  • C
    J25O
  • D
    J25C
39
Study the following information and answer the question given below it: Rohit, Kunal, Ashish and, Ramesh are students of a school. Three of them stay far from the school and one near it. Two studies in class IV, one in class V and one in class VI. They study Hindi, Mathematics, Social Sciences and Science. One is good at all four subjects while another is weak in all of these. Rohit stay far from the school and is good at mathematics only while Kunal is weak in mathematics only and stay close to the school. Neither of these two nor Ashish studies in class VI. One who is good at all the subjects study in class V. Name the boy who is good at all the subjects.
  • A
    Kunal
  • B
    Ashish
    Correct
  • C
    Rohit
  • D
    Ramesh
40
Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One – fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One – third of villagers are literate. Four – fifth of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?
  • A
    At least 13.33 percent literate must be below twenty–five.
    Correct
  • B
    At least 50 percent of the villagers who cultivate paddy are below twenty–five.
  • C
    At least 25 percent of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy.
  • D
    At least 10 percent villagers who have their own houses are literate.
41
A tank is filled by three pipes with each pipe having uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during in which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe to fill the tank is:
  • A
    15 hours
    Correct
  • B
    6 hours
  • C
    10 hours
  • D
    30 hours
42
If FEED is codded as 47 and TREE is coded as 91, then MEET will be coded as:
  • A
    114
  • B
    122
  • C
    110
  • D
    118
    Correct
43
One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 am on Friday. When did it show that correct time?
  • A
    5.00 pm on Wednesday
  • B
    5.00 am on Wednesday
  • C
    9.00 am on Wednesday
    Correct
  • D
    9.00 pm on Wednesday
44
A coding language is used to write English words in coded form given below. The codes do not appear in the same order of the letters in English words. Decode the language and based on these codes identify the code for English word given in each question from the alternatives provided. Letter T E S N I P R R M Coding @ # & $ % ? * + = What is code for "MINT"
Question 44 figure 1
  • A
    =#?%
  • B
    %=&*
  • C
    @%=$
    Correct
  • D
    *@?+
45
A coding language is used to write English words in coded form given below. The codes do not appear in the same order of the letters in English words. Decode the language and based on these codes identify the code for English word given in each question from the alternatives provided. Letter T E S N I P R R M Coding @ # & $ % ? * + = What is code for "RINSE"
Question 45 figure 1
  • A
    %*$#&
    Correct
  • B
    $&#=?
  • C
    =?+*@
  • D
    *$#@+
46
A coding language is used to write English words in coded form given below. The codes do not appear in the same order of the letters in English words. Decode the language and based on these codes identify the code for English word given in each question from the alternatives provided. Letter T E S N I P R R M Coding @ # & $ % ? * + = What is code for "INTEREST"
Question 46 figure 1
  • A
    \(@\# *\# @\$ \% \& \)
    Correct
  • B
    \(?\# = ? + \# *\$ \)
  • C
    \( = ? + *@\)
  • D
    \( + \# @ + \$ = *\% \)
47
There are three circles in the following diagram. A total number of 100 persons were surveyed and the number in the diagram indicates the number of tourists who visited different states. 46 tourists visited Sikkim and 42 tourists visited Karnataka. How many tourists have visited at least two states?
Question 47 figure 1
  • A
    58
  • B
    46
  • C
    50
  • D
    54
    Correct
48
There are three circles in the following diagram. A total number of 100 persons were surveyed and the number in the diagram indicates the number of tourists who visited different states. 46 tourists visited Sikkim and 42 tourists visited Karnataka. How many tourists have visited only two states?
Question 48 figure 1
  • A
    46
  • B
    50
    Correct
  • C
    54
  • D
    96
49
If BREAKTHROUGH is coded as EAOUHRBRGHKT, then DISTRIBUTION will be coded as
  • A
    TISTBUONDIRI
  • B
    STTIBUDIONRI
    Correct
  • C
    RISTTIBUDION
  • D
    STTIBUONRIDI
50
If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as
  • A
    MFM
  • B
    NFN
    Correct
  • C
    UMU
  • D
    UNU
51
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to com, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casher to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food-safely worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health and the environment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Unless we have been eating food labeled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO-free-we probably have GMOs in our body system already! Adding genes to crops will
  • A
    Make them resistant to insect attacks.
    Correct
  • B
    Give them a stable price in the market
  • C
    Help in better crop–research.
  • D
    Make the foods ‘organic’.
52
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to com, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casher to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food-safely worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health and the environment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Unless we have been eating food labeled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO-free-we probably have GMOs in our body system already! The “.....loudest public food fight .....” suggests that
  • A
    There is a great competition in growing GMOs.
  • B
    There are strong protests against GMOs
    Correct
  • C
    Crop Scientists are almost fighting in the streets.
  • D
    People do not like the Crop Scicentists.
53
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to com, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casher to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food-safely worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health and the environment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Unless we have been eating food labeled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO-free-we probably have GMOs in our body system already! Those who support GMOs say that
  • A
    Growing the crops poses may challenges now.
  • B
    They do not protect the fields from insect–attacks.
  • C
    They bring down the prices of the crops.
    Correct
  • D
    They help in carrying out more experiments with better results.
54
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to com, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casher to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food-safely worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health and the environment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Unless we have been eating food labeled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO-free-we probably have GMOs in our body system already! Those who opposed to GMOs say that
  • A
    These crops can cause serious harm to our health.
    Correct
  • B
    Such crop-research has been stopped.
  • C
    The pattern of growing and harvesting of crops will change.
  • D
    The costs of the crops will not change much in the markets.
55
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to com, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casher to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food-safely worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health and the environment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Unless we have been eating food labeled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO-free-we probably have GMOs in our body system already! ‘Organic foods’ according to the passage are those are
  • A
    already there is our bodies as GMOs
  • B
    grown free from GMOs
    Correct
  • C
    helpful to our body’s various organs
  • D
    grown in well–organised farms
56
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. ‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of ours, information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embarrass you. Your iPhone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search for addresses as we use the GPS. We spend more time connecting with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet frauds and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information. Today we have better tools for searching, analyzing or evaluating through data than before. And what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives. The passage primarily discusses
  • A
    the evaluation of the pros and cons of technology
    Correct
  • B
    the advantage of technology
  • C
    criticism of technology
  • D
    the age of technology
57
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. ‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of ours, information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embarrass you. Your iPhone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search for addresses as we use the GPS. We spend more time connecting with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet frauds and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information. Today we have better tools for searching, analyzing or evaluating through data than before. And what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives. ‘The golden age of answers’ implies that there are
  • A
    opportunities to connect with friends on Facebook
  • B
    diverse technologies available in the present time
    Correct
  • C
    the age of technology
  • D
    pop-up ads to provide information
58
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. ‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of ours, information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embarrass you. Your iPhone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search for addresses as we use the GPS. We spend more time connecting with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet frauds and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information. Today we have better tools for searching, analyzing or evaluating through data than before. And what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives. We pay a price for this revolution as we
  • A
    only receive useless information
  • B
    get agitated
  • C
    forget our identities
  • D
    surrender our privacy
    Correct
59
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. ‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of ours, information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embarrass you. Your iPhone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search for addresses as we use the GPS. We spend more time connecting with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet frauds and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information. Today we have better tools for searching, analyzing or evaluating through data than before. And what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives. This ‘revolution’ has brought
  • A
    radical changes to our lives.
    Correct
  • B
    rotation in our lives.
  • C
    success in our lives.
  • D
    merely problems in our lives.
60
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. ‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of ours, information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embarrass you. Your iPhone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search for addresses as we use the GPS. We spend more time connecting with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet frauds and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information. Today we have better tools for searching, analyzing or evaluating through data than before. And what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives. The author’s attitude to technology according to this passage is
  • A
    positive
    Correct
  • B
    not clear.
  • C
    negative
  • D
    insignificant
61
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high–rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’ Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a plumber but in most middleclass families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’ Surti’s primary mission is to
  • A
    check wastage of water
    Correct
  • B
    supply free water.
  • C
    close running taps.
  • D
    provide free plumbers.
62
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high–rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’ Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a plumber but in most middleclass families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’ ‘spurred into action’ means
  • A
    keen to act.
  • B
    emboldened to act.
  • C
    volunteered to act.
  • D
    encouraged to act.
    Correct
63
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high–rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’ Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a plumber but in most middleclass families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’ People may be more willing to accept Surit’s services as he
  • A
    is a local person from Mumbai.
  • B
    runs a water conservation NGO.
  • C
    provides services assisted by a plumber.
    Correct
  • D
    is on a mission.
64
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high–rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’ Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a plumber but in most middleclass families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’ Most middle-class families’ attitude to water conservation is due to their
  • A
    lack of expertise.
  • B
    lack of money.
  • C
    lack of knowledge.
  • D
    lack of concern.
    Correct
65
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high–rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’ Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a plumber but in most middleclass families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’ The work being done by Surit is significant because he
  • A
    has several skills.
  • B
    is solving social problems.
    Correct
  • C
    runs an NGO in Mumbai.
  • D
    is providing plumbing services.
66
The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to complete the paragraph. S1. Normally ladybugs are sophisticated and voracious predators. S2. ________________________________________________ S3. ________________________________________________ S4. ________________________________________________ S5. Then it creeps up and strikes, ripping the victim apart with its barbed mandibles. P – Once it has homed in one these signals, it switches its sensory scan to search for molecules released by the victim. Q – A single individual may devour several thousands of victims in a lifetime. R – To find a victim, if first waves its antennae to detect chemical that plants release when they are under attack by herbivorous insects. Choose from the options given below:
  • A
    PRQ
  • B
    RPQ
  • C
    QRP
    Correct
  • D
    PQR
67
The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to complete the paragraph. S1. Years ago, the kids were all keen on ‘soda water powder’, soft drink mix that made carbonated beverages. S2. _______________________________________ S3. _______________________________________ S4. _______________________________________ S5. They began calling them Popsicles instead, and the treat was patented as such. P – Epperson cleverly sat on his invention, keeping it secret for 18 years, until he was in the position to make something of it. Q – One night in 1905, Frank Epperson accidentally left his drink out on the porch, and as it froze overnight, it was absolutely delicious by the morning. R – In 1923, he decided to patent his Epsicles (“Epp’s Icicles”), but his children refused to use that anme since none of them called their father Epp. Choose from the options given below:
  • A
    QPR
    Correct
  • B
    PRQ
  • C
    RQP
  • D
    RPQ
68
The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the given option to complete it. A. I used to think that boiling an egg would be a simple job until I came to live in the Himalayas. B. _______________________________________________________________________ C. I don’t know if it’s the altitude or the density of the water, but it just won’t come to a boil in time for breakfast. 1.____________________________________________________ 2. ___________________________________________________
  • A
    “Were the eggs also too hard?” I wondered.
  • B
    I found that just getting the water to boil was an achievement.
    Correct
  • C
    I could never find good eggs there.
  • D
    Boiling an egg in the Himalayas was fascinating.
69
The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the given option to complete it. A. Imagine a five-year old composing music and playing on a child-size violin. B. ___________________________________________________________ C. He was a young genius who grew up to be one of t he most creative composers of all time. 1.____________________________________________________ 2. ___________________________________________________
  • A
    It is strange to find such a phenomenon.
  • B
    The child must have been some genius.
  • C
    This was something Mozart did.
    Correct
  • D
    This is simply impossible for us to think of
70
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: The journey in the run down bus over the pot-holed road felt almost like a ......................ride.
  • A
    boat
  • B
    train
  • C
    bicycle
  • D
    roller-coaster
    Correct
71
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: The good old Ambassador cars are now considered ................................
  • A
    obsolete
    Correct
  • B
    oblivious
  • C
    obscure
  • D
    absolute
72
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: The report has been prepared well and hopefully it will be ........................ at the next board meeting.
  • A
    tabled
    Correct
  • B
    grounded
  • C
    chaired
  • D
    shelved
73
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: The Talent Search Examination is challenging but not frightening. Why don’t you take a ...................... at it?
  • A
    swipe
  • B
    trial
  • C
    hit
  • D
    shot
    Correct
74
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: Grandfather has always been a figure of ......................... in our large family.
  • A
    authority
    Correct
  • B
    authoritarian
  • C
    authorized
  • D
    authoritative
75
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: She found Rashmi in the kitchen, looking old and ............................
  • A
    in a hurry
  • B
    busy
  • C
    weary
    Correct
  • D
    healthy
76
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: Tax offenders were refused ...................... to leave the country.
  • A
    admission
  • B
    submission
  • C
    permission
    Correct
  • D
    information
77
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: A good driver will be very careful before carrying out a complex ...................
  • A
    motion
  • B
    moment
  • C
    manoeuvre
    Correct
  • D
    movement
78
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: With the new Management taking over, there’s now a big ........................ hanging over the Company’s future.
  • A
    gossip
  • B
    discussion
  • C
    question mark
    Correct
  • D
    thought
79
Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given: The Coffee Room was ........................... into smoking and non-smoking areas.
  • A
    amalgamated
  • B
    shared
  • C
    segregated
    Correct
  • D
    considered
80
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. For want of
  • A
    because of fulfilling needs
  • B
    desiring something
  • C
    giving something wanted by another
  • D
    because of lack of
    Correct
81
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. Clown around
  • A
    make others feel silly and stupid
  • B
    be an object of ridicule
  • C
    behave in a silly way
    Correct
  • D
    join a Circus company
82
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. Talk back
  • A
    talk in a loud voice
  • B
    reply to the questions asked
  • C
    answer rudely
    Correct
  • D
    talk behind a person’s back
83
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. Run into
  • A
    meet someone by chance
    Correct
  • B
    make unexpected purchases
  • C
    start quarrelling
  • D
    run from one place to another
84
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. blow one’s own trumpet
  • A
    to praise oneself
    Correct
  • B
    to create music
  • C
    to feel happy
  • D
    to praise someone
85
Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms. To see eye to eye
  • A
    be cross-eyed
  • B
    stare at someone
  • C
    have the same opinion
    Correct
  • D
    examine someone’s eyes
86
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 36?
  • A
    those
  • B
    their
  • C
    these
    Correct
  • D
    this
87
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 37?
  • A
    with
    Correct
  • B
    from
  • C
    of
  • D
    in
88
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 38?
  • A
    pious
  • B
    fine
  • C
    edible
    Correct
  • D
    light
89
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 39?
  • A
    with
  • B
    from
  • C
    for
  • D
    to
    Correct
90
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 40?
  • A
    seen
  • B
    find
  • C
    eager
    Correct
  • D
    look
91
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 41?
  • A
    taste
  • B
    joy
  • C
    eat
  • D
    dish
    Correct
92
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 42?
  • A
    fame
    Correct
  • B
    claim
  • C
    love
  • D
    taste
93
In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option. At Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............ besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............ ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon, and (38) ............ camphor – draws millions of devotees (39) ............ this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............ for a bite of this holy (41) ............ . In 2009, it received international (42) ............ when its was given the unique global (43) ............ i.e. legal protection against imitation. Which of the following is fit in gap 43?
  • A
    patent
    Correct
  • B
    index
  • C
    reward
  • D
    quality
94
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. Locacted close to Charminar, the kilometer–long stretch of Laad Bazaar is ............ with shops selling bright in every hue and colour.
  • A
    came
  • B
    filled
    Correct
  • C
    covered
  • D
    discovered
95
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. I suggest you should ............ yourself with the rules before you join the meeting.
  • A
    familiarize
    Correct
  • B
    familiar
  • C
    familiarity
  • D
    familiarly
96
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. The child held the bag as tightly as if it were her most ............ possession.
  • A
    prized
    Correct
  • B
    prizely
  • C
    prizy
  • D
    prize
97
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. The weakness in their defense has already cost them ............ this season.
  • A
    dear
  • B
    dearness
  • C
    deary
  • D
    dearly
    Correct
98
Select the word which means the opposite of the given word. "Undertake"
  • A
    refuse
    Correct
  • B
    recognize
  • C
    rejoice
  • D
    being
99
Select the word which means the opposite of the given word. "Hafty"
  • A
    half–hearted
  • B
    light
    Correct
  • C
    heavy
  • D
    halved
100
Select the word which means the opposite of the given word. "Miniature"
  • A
    masculine
  • B
    manicure
  • C
    massive
    Correct
  • D
    missive
101
LCM of two numbers x and y is 720 and the LCM of numbers 12x and 5y is also 720. The number y is
  • A
    120
  • B
    90
  • C
    144
    Correct
  • D
    180
102
When a natural number x is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. When a natural number by is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. The remainder is z when x + y is divided by 5. The value of \(\frac{{2z - 5}}{3}\) is
  • A
    1
  • B
    2
  • C
    -1
    Correct
  • D
    -2
103
If the zeroes of the polynomial \(64{x^3} - 144{x^2} + 92x - 15\) are in A.P., then the difference between the largest and the smallest zeroes of the polynomial is
  • A
    \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • B
    1
    Correct
  • C
    \(\frac{7}{8}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{3}{4}\)
104
x and y are two non–negative numbers such that 2x + y = 10. The sum of the maximum and minimum values of (x + y) is
  • A
    10
  • B
    15
    Correct
  • C
    9
  • D
    6
105
The number of integral solutions of the equation \(7\left( {y + \frac{1}{y}} \right) - 2\left( {{y^2} + \frac{1}{{{y^2}}}} \right) = 9\) is
  • A
    0
  • B
    2
  • C
    1
    Correct
  • D
    3
106
A circle with area A \(c{m^2}\) is contained in the interior of a larger circle with area (A + B) \(c{m^2}\)and the radius of the larger circle is 4 cm. if A, B, A + B are in arithmetic progression, then the diameter (in cm) of the smaller circle is
  • A
    \(\frac{{8\sqrt 3 }}{3}\)
    Correct
  • B
    \(2\sqrt 3 \)
  • C
    \(\frac{{4\sqrt 3 }}{3}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{{\sqrt 3 }}{2}\)
107
Each of the sides of a triangle is 8 cm less than the sum of its other two sides. Area of the triangle (in\(c{m^2}\)) is
  • A
    \(8\sqrt 3 \)
  • B
    \(16\sqrt 3 \)
    Correct
  • C
    16
  • D
    8
108
If \(\cos ecx - \cot x = \frac{1}{3}\) , where \(x \ne 0\), then the value of \({\cos ^2}x - {\sin ^2}x\) is
  • A
    \(\frac{7}{{25}}\)
    Correct
  • B
    \(\frac{9}{{25}}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{16}}{{25}}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{8}{{25}}\)
109
A sector with acute central angle \(\theta \) is cut from a circle of diameter 14 cm. The area (in \(c{m^2}\) ) of the circle circumscribing the sector is
  • A
    \(\frac{{77}}{2}{\sec ^2}\theta \)
  • B
    \(\frac{7}{2}{\sec ^2}\frac{\theta }{2}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{22}}{7}{\sec ^2}\frac{\theta }{2}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{{77}}{2}{\sec ^2}\frac{\theta }{2}\)
    Correct
110
In the figure, PQSO is a trapezium in which \(PQ\parallel OS,\angle POS = 135^\circ \) and \(\angle OSQ = 90^\circ \). Point P, Q and R lie on a circle with centre O and radius 12 cm. The area of the shaded part, in \(c{m^2}\) , is
Question 110 figure 1
  • A
    \(73\frac{2}{7}\)
  • B
    \(61\frac{2}{7}\)
  • C
    \(61\frac{5}{7}\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(73\frac{5}{7}\)
111
A solid sphere is cut into identical pieces by three mutually perpendicular planes passing through its centre. Increase in total surface area of all the pieces with respect to the total surface area of the original sphere is
  • A
    150%
    Correct
  • B
    125%
  • C
    250%
  • D
    175%
112
A right circular cylinder has its height equal to two times its radius. It is inscribed in a right circular cone having its diameter equal to 10 cm and height 12 cm, and the axes of both the cylinder and the cone coincide. Then, the volume (in \(c{m^3}\) ) of the cylinder is approximately.
  • A
    107.5
  • B
    127.5
    Correct
  • C
    128.7
  • D
    118.6
113
In the figure, ABCD is a square of side 1 dm and \(\angle PAQ = 45^\circ \). The perimeter (in dm) of the triangle PQC is
Question 113 figure 1
  • A
    \(1 + \sqrt 3 \)
  • B
    \(1 + \sqrt 2 \)
  • C
    2
    Correct
  • D
    \(2\sqrt 2 - 1\)
114
In the figure, ABC is a triangle in with AD bisects \(\angle A\), AC = BC, \(\angle B = 72^\circ \) and CD = 1 cm. Length of BD (in cm) is
Question 114 figure 1
  • A
    \(\frac{{\sqrt 3 + 1}}{2}\)
  • B
    1
  • C
    \(\frac{{\sqrt 5 - 1}}{2}\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(\frac{1}{2}\)
115
In the figure, BC is a chord of the circle with centre O and A is a point on the minor arc BC. Then, \(\angle BAC - \angle OAC\) is equal to
Question 115 figure 1
  • A
    \(90^\circ \)
    Correct
  • B
    \(60^\circ \)
  • C
    \(30^\circ \)
  • D
    \(80^\circ \)
116
In the figure, \(\Delta APB\) is formed by three tangents to the circle with centre O. If \(\angle APB = 40^\circ \), then the measure of \(\angle BOA\)is
Question 116 figure 1
  • A
    \(55^\circ \)
  • B
    \(60^\circ \)
  • C
    \(70^\circ \)
    Correct
  • D
    \(50^\circ \)
117
(5, –10), (–15, 15) and (5, 5) are the coordinates of vertices A, B and C respectively of \(\Delta ABC\) and P is a point on median AD such that AP : PD = 2 : 3. Ratio of the areas of the triangle PBC and ABC is
  • A
    It is 3:5
    Correct
  • B
    It is 2:3
  • C
    It is 3:4
  • D
    It is 4:5
118
P is a point on the graph of y = 5x + 3. The coordinates of a point Q are (3, -2). If M is the mid-point of PQ, then M must lie on the line represented by
  • A
    y = 5x + 1
  • B
    \(y = \frac{5}{2}x + \frac{1}{2}\)
  • C
    y = 5x – 7
    Correct
  • D
    \(y = \frac{5}{2}x - \frac{7}{2}\)
119
Three – digit numbers formed by using digits 0, 1, 2 and 5 (without repetition) are written on different slips with distinct number on each slip, and put in a bowl. One slip is drawn at random from the bowl. The probability that the slip bears a number divisible by 5 is
  • A
    \(\frac{5}{9}\)
    Correct
  • B
    \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{4}{9}\)
120
The mean of fifteen different natural numbers is 13. The maximum value for the second largest of these number is
  • A
    51
    Correct
  • B
    52
  • C
    46
  • D
    53
121
A man running with a uniform speed ‘u’ on a straight road observes a stationary bus at a distance ‘d’ ahead of him. At that instant, the bus starts with an acceleration ‘a’. The condition that he would be able to catch the bus is:
  • A
    \(d \leq \frac{{{u^2}}}{a}\)
  • B
    \(d \leq \frac{{{u^2}}}{{3a}}\)
  • C
    \(d \leq \frac{{{u^2}}}{{2a}}\)
    Correct
  • D
    \(d \leq \frac{{{u^2}}}{{4a}}\)
122
A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a given velocity ‘v’ such that it rises for T seconds (T>1). What is the distance traversed by the ball during the last one second of ascent (in meter)? (Acceleration due to gravity is \(\left( {gm/{s^2}} \right)\)
  • A
    \(\frac{1}{2}g\left[ {{T^2} - {{(T - 1)}^2}} \right]\)
  • B
    \(\frac{1}{2}g{T^2}\)
  • C
    \(vT + \frac{1}{2}g\left[ {{T^2} - {{(T - 1)}^2}} \right]\)
  • D
    \(\frac{g}{2}\)
    Correct
123
The radius of a planet A is twice that of planet B. The average density of the material of planet A is thrice that of planet B. The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A and that on the surface of planet B is:
  • A
    \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • B
    \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • C
    6
    Correct
  • D
    \(\frac{4}{3}\)
124
A small spherical ball of mass ‘m’ is used as the bob of a pendulum. The work done by the force of tension on its displacement is \({W_1}\) . The same ball is made to roll on a frictionless table. The work done by the force of normal reaction is \({W_2}\). Again the same ball is given a positive charge ‘g’ and made to travel with a velocity v in a magnetic field B. The work done by the force experienced by the charged ball is \({W_3}\). If the displacements in each case are the same, we have
  • A
    \({W_1} < {W_2} < {W_3}\)
  • B
    \({W_1} = {W_2} = {W_3}\)
    Correct
  • C
    \({W_1} > {W_2} > {W_3}\)
  • D
    That \({W_1}\), \({W_2}\)cannot be related by any equation
125
The variation in the kinetic energy (K.E.) and the potential energy (P.E.) of a particle moving along the x-axis are shown in the graph below. Which one of the following graphs violates the law of conservation of energy?
  • A
    Option A
  • B
    Option B
  • C
    Option C
    Correct
  • D
    Option D
126
The disc of a siren containing 60 holes rotates at a constant speed of 360 rotations per minute. The emitted sound is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency:
  • A
    360 Hz
    Correct
  • B
    480 Hz
  • C
    540 Hz
  • D
    270 Hz
127
A tuning fork is excited by striking it with a padded hammer. What would be the nature of the vibrations executed by the prongs as well as the stem of the form respectively? (The reference direction is that of the propagation of the sound wave.)
  • A
    Both vibrate transversely
  • B
    The prong vibrate transversely whereas the stem vibrates longitudinally
  • C
    The prongs vibrate longitudinally whereas the stem vibrates transversely
    Correct
  • D
    Both vibrate longitudinally
128
Find the reading of the ammeter in the circuit given below:
Question 128 figure 1
  • A
    \(\frac{{2V}}{{7R}}\)
  • B
    \(\frac{V}{{2R}}\)
  • C
    \(\frac{{11V}}{R}\)
  • D
    \(\frac{{3V}}{{4R}}\)
    Correct
129
Three bulbs with individual power rating of 12 W, 2 W and 6 W respectively are connected as per the circuit diagram below. Find the amount of heat dissipated by each in 10 seconds.
  • A
    8 J, 1.33 J, 4 J
  • B
    120 J, 20 J, 60 J
    Correct
  • C
    12 J, 1.66 J, 5 J
  • D
    10 J, 0.277 J, 2.5 J
130
Which of the following can produce a magnetic field?
  • A
    Only by permanent magnets
  • B
    Electric charges whether at rest or in motion
  • C
    Electric charges in motion
    Correct
  • D
    Electric charges at rest
131
A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south direction and there is a horizontal magnetic field pointing towards the east. Some positive charges in the wire move north and an equal number of negative charges move south. The direction of force on the wire will be:
Question 131 figure 1
  • A
    East
  • B
    West
  • C
    Down, into the page
    Correct
  • D
    Up, out of the page
132
Match the following: Phenomenon (i) Rainbow (ii) Twinkling of stars (iii) Blue colour of sky (iv) Advancement of sunrise and delay sunset Reason (A) scattering of light (B) dispersion of light (C) fluctuation of the refraction index in atmosphere layers (D) refraction of light
  • A
    (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
  • B
    (i) – D, (ii) – B, (iii) – A, (iv) – C
  • C
    (i) – B, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – C
  • D
    (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
    Correct
133
A person is suffering from both near sightedness and far sightedness. His spectacles would be made of
  • A
    A convex lens as the upper lens and a concave lens as the lower lens
  • B
    A concave lens as the upper lens and a convex lens as the lower lens
  • C
    Two convex lenses with the upper lens having a larger focal length than the lower lens
    Correct
  • D
    Two concave lenses with the upper lens having a smaller focal length than the lower lens
134
What happens when a fixed amount of oxygen gas is taken in a cylinder and compressed at constant temperature? (i) Number of collision of oxygen molecules at per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increase (ii) Oxygen \(\left( {{O_2}} \right)\) gets converted into ozone \(\left( {{O_3}} \right)\) (iii) Kinetic energy of the molecules of oxygen gas increases
  • A
    (i) and (iii)
  • B
    (ii) and (iii)
  • C
    (iii) only
  • D
    (i) only
    Correct
135
The solubility of a substance S in water is 28.6% (mass by volume) at \(50^\circ C\) . When 50 ml of its saturated solution at \(50^\circ C\) is cooled to \(40^\circ C\), 2.4 g of solid S separated out. The solubility of S in water at \(40^\circ C\)(mass by volume) is:
  • A
    2.4%
  • B
    23.8%
    Correct
  • C
    26.2%
  • D
    11.9%
136
What mass of \(C{O_2}\) will be formed when 6 g of carbon is burnt in 32 g of oxygen?
  • A
    22 g
    Correct
  • B
    12 g
  • C
    26 g
  • D
    38 g
137
The law of conservation of mass is valid for which of the following? 1) Reactions involving oxidation 2) Nuclear reactions 3) Endothermic reaction
  • A
    1 and 2
  • B
    2 only
  • C
    1 and 3
    Correct
  • D
    2 and 3
138
How many sub-atomic particles are present in an \(\alpha \)–particles used in Rutherford’s scattering experiment?
  • A
    No. of protons – 2, No. of neutrons – 2, No. of electrons – 0
    Correct
  • B
    No. of protons – 2, No. of neutrons – 2, No. of electrons – 1
  • C
    No. of protons – 4, No. of neutrons – 0, No. of electrons – 0
  • D
    No. of protons – 2, No. of neutrons – 0, No. of electrons – 2
139
A certain sample of element Z contains 60% of \({}^{69}Z\) and 40% of \({}^{71}Z\). What is the relative atomic mass of element Z in this sample?
  • A
    69.2
  • B
    69.8
    Correct
  • C
    70.2
  • D
    70.0
140
Compound A on strong heating in a boiling tube gives off reddish brown fumes and a yellow residue with a few drops of sodium solution, a white precipitate appeared. Identify the cation and anion present in the compound A.
  • A
    Zinc and sulphate
  • B
    Lead (II) and nitrate
    Correct
  • C
    Copper (II) and nitrate
  • D
    Lead (II) and chloride
141
A substance A reacts with another substance B to product C and a gas D. If a mixture of the gas D and ammonia is passed through an aqueous solution of C, baking soda is formed. The substances A and B are
  • A
    HCl and \({\text{N}}{{\text{a}}_2}{\text{C}}{{\text{O}}_3}\)
    Correct
  • B
    Na and HCl
  • C
    HCl and NaOH
  • D
    \({\text{N}}{{\text{a}}_2}{\text{C}}{{\text{O}}_3}\)and \({{\text{H}}_2}{\text{O}}\)
142
A metal occurs in nature as its ore X which on heating in air converts to Y. Y with unreacted X to give the metal. The metal is
  • A
    Cu
    Correct
  • B
    Hg
  • C
    Zn
  • D
    Fe
143
Assertion (A): Nitrate ores are rarely available Reason (R): Bond dissociation energy of nitrogen is very high
  • A
    Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • B
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    Correct
  • C
    Both A and R is false
  • D
    A is correct and R is false
144
The number of structural isomers of the compound having molecular formula \({C_4}{H_9}Br\) is
  • A
    3
  • B
    2
  • C
    5
  • D
    4
    Correct
145
The total number of electrons and the number of electros involved in the formation of various bonds present in one molecule of propanal \(\left( {{C_2}{H_5}CHO} \right)\) are respectively.
  • A
    24 and 20
  • B
    32 and 20
    Correct
  • C
    32 and 18
  • D
    24 and 18
146
Consider following as a portion of the periodic table from Group No. 13 to 17. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the elements shown in it? (I) Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W (II) Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X (III) V, W, Y and Z are less electropositive than X (IV) V, W, X and Y are more electronegative than Z
Question 146 figure 1
  • A
    III and IV
  • B
    I and IV
    Correct
  • C
    I, II and III
  • D
    II and III
147
A segment of DNA contains 1200 nucleotides, of which 200 have adenine base. How many cytosine bases are present in this segment of DNA?
  • A
    100
  • B
    400
    Correct
  • C
    200
  • D
    800
148
You are observing a non-chlorophyllous, eukaryotic organism with chitinous cell wall under a microscope. You shall describe the organism as a
  • A
    fungus
    Correct
  • B
    protozoa
  • C
    alga
  • D
    bacterium
149
Match the items given in column A and column B, and identify the correct alternative listed below. Column – A a) Flying fish b) Flying lizard c) Egg laying mammals d) Flightless bird Column – B (i) Draco (ii) Echidna (iii) Exocoetus (iv) Struthio
  • A
    a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
  • B
    a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
  • C
    a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv
  • D
    a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv
    Correct
150
Which one of the following statements about cell organelles and their function is correct?
  • A
    Mitochondria are associated with anaerobic respiration
  • B
    Lysosomes are important in membrane biogenesis
  • C
    Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis
  • D
    Golgi bodies are involved in packaging and dispatching of materials
    Correct
151
A leguminous plant grown in an autoclaved, sterilized soil fails to produce root nodules because–
  • A
    Autoclaving reducing \({N_2}\) content of soil
  • B
    Plants cannot form root hairs in such a soil
  • C
    Autoclaved soil is not good for root growth
  • D
    Autoclaved soil is devoid of bacteria
    Correct
152
The causative agent of the disease ‘sleeping sickness’ in human being is an
  • A
    Extracellular parasite found on the surface of platelets
  • B
    Extracellular parasite found in blood plasma
    Correct
  • C
    Intracellular parasite found in WBC
  • D
    Intracellular parasite found in RBC
153
The gene of hemophilia is present on X chromosome. If a hemophilic male marries a normal female, the probability of their son being hemophilic is
  • A
    25%
  • B
    50%
  • C
    Nil
    Correct
  • D
    100%
154
Abundance of coliform bacteria in a water body is indicative of pollution from
  • A
    Petroleum refinery
  • B
    Metal smelter
  • C
    Fertilizer factory
  • D
    Domestic sewage
    Correct
155
Prolonged exposure to the fumes released by incomplete combustion of coal may cause death of a human because of –
  • A
    Continuous exposure to high temperature
  • B
    Inhalation of unburnt carbon particles
  • C
    Increased level of carbon dioxide
  • D
    Increased level of carbon monoxide
    Correct
156
The phenomenon of normal breathing in a human being comprises
  • A
    An active inspiratory and a passive expiratory phase
    Correct
  • B
    Both active inspiratory and expiratory phases
  • C
    A passive inspiratory and an active expiratory phase
  • D
    Both passive inspiratory and expiratory phases
157
Which one of the following statements is true with respect to the photosynthesis?
  • A
    Chlorophyll a is the only photosynthesis pigment in plants
  • B
    Photosynthesis occurs in stem of some plants
    Correct
  • C
    Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from \(C{O_2}\)
  • D
    Photosynthesis does not occur in red light
158
The girth of stem increases due to the activity of
  • A
    Lateral meristem
    Correct
  • B
    Apical and intercalary meristem
  • C
    Intercalary meristem
  • D
    Apical meristem
159
Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of reflex action?
  • A
    \({\text{Receptor}} \to {\text{motor nerve}} \to {\text{spinal cord}} \to {\text{sensory nerve}} \to {\text{muscle}}\)
  • B
    \({\text{Receptor}} \to {\text{Sensory nerve}} \to {\text{motor nerve}} \to {\text{spinal cord}} \to {\text{muscle}}\)
  • C
    \({\text{Receptor}} \to {\text{Sensory nerve}} \to {\text{spinal cord}} \to {\text{muscle}} \to {\text{motor nerve}}\)
  • D
    \({\text{Receptor}} \to {\text{Sensory nerve}} \to {\text{spinal cord}} \to {\text{motor nervse}} \to {\text{muscle}}\)
    Correct
160
In human female, immature eggs are for the first time seen in ovary
  • A
    During the first menstrual cycle
  • B
    After the first year of birth
  • C
    Before birth, at the fetus stage
    Correct
  • D
    At puberty
161
Assertion (A): During eighteenth century France witnessed the emergence of a middle class. Reason (R): The emergence of the middle class happened on account of royal patronage.
  • A
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B
    A is false, R is true
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D
    A is true, R is false
    Correct
162
Assertion (A): The lives of pastoralists in India underwent dramatic changes under colonial rule. Reason (R): In most areas the lands regularly used by pastoralist for grazing were taken over by the colonial state and given to select individuals for cultivation.
  • A
    A is true, R is false
  • B
    Both A and R are true but R is the correction explanation of A.
    Correct
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D
    A is false, R is true
163
Assertion (A): By the early twentieth century, America became the biggest supplier of wheat to Europe. Reason (R): The expansion of the railways during the period greatly facilitated the transport of grain.
  • A
    A is true, R is false
  • B
    A is false, R is true
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • D
    Both A and R are true and R is the correction explanation of A
    Correct
164
Match the following table and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter. Column I A. 1910 B. 1930 C. 1907 D. 1887 Column II I. Establishment of Tonkin Free School. II. Formation of French Indo-China. III. Completion of the trans-indo-China rail network. IV. Formation of the Vietnamese Communist Party.
  • A
    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • B
    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-I
  • C
    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • D
    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    Correct
165
Arrange the following Indian novels in accordance with their year of writing/publication A. Indulekha B. Rajasekhara Caritramu C. Yamuna Paryatan D. Pariksha-Guru
  • A
    C, D, B, A
  • B
    A, D, B, C
  • C
    A, B, D, C
  • D
    C, B, D, A
    Correct
166
The main tentes of April Theses during the Bolshevik Revolution were:
  • A
    Communist government, land fragmentation and merger of banks.
  • B
    Closing the war, shifting of banks, land polling by government.
  • C
    Ending the war, bank nationalisation and land transfer.
    Correct
  • D
    Formation of labour government, bank nationalisation and land distribution.
167
Mahatma Gandhi changed his dressing style from Western to Indian over a period of time. Match those changes as given Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct response from the option given thereafter Column I A. Suit B. Lungi–Kurta C. Peasant Dress D. Short Dhoti Column II I. 1915 II. 1890 III. 1921 IV. 1913
  • A
    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • B
    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C
    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    Correct
  • D
    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
168
In late 19th and early 20th centuries, nationalism captured the imagination of the Indian people through a variety of cultural processes. Which of the following was not a part of those processes?
  • A
    Creation of different images of Bharat Mata.
  • B
    Designing flags as inspiring symbols of nationalism.
  • C
    Recording, collection and publication of folk tales and folk songs.
  • D
    Rewriting history to show India’s continuous progress from the ancient to the modern times.
    Correct
169
Choose the correct response from the given options. Nomadic people move over long distances because
  • A
    By temperament they do not like to settle down in any one place.
  • B
    Economically they are too poor to own land.
  • C
    They constantly look for good pastureland for their cattle.
    Correct
  • D
    They follow a life style which is very different from the settled communities.
170
Choose the correct response from the given options. In 19th century England grain production grew as quickly as the population because
  • A
    Increasing number of poor people found work as agricultural labourers.
  • B
    Radical innovations were made in agricultural technology.
  • C
    Larger and larger areas were brought under cultivation.
    Correct
  • D
    Farmers used simple agricultural technology to greater effect.
171
Choose the correct response from the given options. By the late 19th century Indians began searching for a national dress because they wanted to
  • A
    Culturally synthesize the traditions of the East and the West.
    Correct
  • B
    Show that in terms of dress they were not inferior to the British.
  • C
    Define the cultural identity of the nation.
  • D
    Get rid of the blame of blindly aping the West.
172
Choose the correct response from the given options. The unification of Germany in 1871, for a change, demonstrated.
  • A
    The triumph of the democratic aspirations of the German middle class.
  • B
    The power of the common people, das volk.
  • C
    The dominance of the state power and conservatives success in mobilizing nationalist sentiments.
    Correct
  • D
    The fulfillment of the liberal initiative to nation–building.
173
Choose the correct response from the given options. The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ in 1707 meant, in effect.
  • A
    Recognition to the ethnic identities of the Welsh, the Scot and the Irish.
  • B
    The cessation of conflicts between the Catholics and the Protestants.
  • C
    Equal representation of all the British Isles in the British Parliament.
  • D
    The dominance of England on Scotland through the English supremacy in Parliament.
    Correct
174
Choose the correct response from the given option. Many within the congress wre initially opposed to the idea of non-cooperation because–
  • A
    They were not yet sure of Gandhiji’s ability to successfully lead a nationwide movement.
  • B
    They did not think that British rule in Indian would collapse if Indians refused to cooperate.
  • C
    They did not agree with Gandhiji’s proposal to carry the movement forward in stages.
  • D
    They were reluctant to boycott the council election scheduled for November 1920.
    Correct
175
Choose the correct response from the given options. The main reason why the society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was set up during the French Revolution was because.
  • A
    Women wanted access to education, training for jobs, and wages on par with men.
  • B
    Women wanted the same political rights as men.
    Correct
  • C
    Women wanted laws that would help improve their lives.
  • D
    Women wanted their interests to be properly represented in the new government.
176
Assertion (A): The El Nino, a cold ocean current flows along the coast of Peru during Christmas. Reason (R): The presence of the El Nino leads to an increase in sea-surface temperatures and weakening of the trade winds in the region.
  • A
    Both A and R are true and R explains. A.
  • B
    A is true and R is false.
  • C
    A is false and R is true.
    Correct
  • D
    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
177
Assertion (A): Air temperature decreases from the equator towards the poles. Reason (R): As one move from the sea level to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases.
  • A
    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
    Correct
  • B
    Both A and R are true and R explains. A.
  • C
    A is false and R is true.
  • D
    A is true and R is false.
178
Match List-I (local name of shifting cultivation) with List-II (States/Region) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List I (Local name of shifting) A. Dahiya B. Kumari C. Bringa D. Kuruwa List II (State/ Region) I. Jharkhand II. Madhya Pradesh III. Odisha IV. Western Ghats
  • A
    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B
    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • C
    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    Correct
  • D
    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
179
Assertion (A): Most nuclear power stations in India have been constructed near sources of water. Reason (R): Nuclear power stations require a great quantity of water cooling purposes.
  • A
    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
  • B
    A is false and R is true
  • C
    A is true and R is false
  • D
    Both A and R are true and R explains A.
    Correct
180
Assertion (A): Peninsular rocks contain many reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals. Reason (R) :Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the ferrous minerals.
  • A
    Both A and R are true and R explains A.
  • B
    A is true and R is false
    Correct
  • C
    A is false and R is true
  • D
    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
181
Which one of the following states has common borders with the least number of countries?
  • A
    Uttarakhand
    Correct
  • B
    Arunachal Pradesh
  • C
    Sikkim
  • D
    West Bengal
182
Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II (National Waterways) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List I (Rivers) A. Ganga B. Brahmaputra C. Godavari and Krishna D. Mahanadi and Brahmani List II (National Waterways) I. National Waterway No. 4 II. National Waterway No. 1 III. National Waterway No. 5 IV. National Waterway No. 2
  • A
    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • B
    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • C
    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    Correct
  • D
    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
183
Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II (Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below: List I (Rivers) A. Godavari B. Ganga C. Krishna D. Brahamputra List II (Tributaries) I. Lihit II. Koyana III. Waingana IV. Son
  • A
    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B
    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    Correct
  • C
    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • D
    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
184
Arrange these hills/ranges from north to south direction I. Zuskar Range II. Shiwalik Range III. Karakoram Range IV. Ladakh Range
  • A
    IV, III, I, II
  • B
    II, IV, I, II
    Correct
  • C
    I, II, III, IV
  • D
    III, I, IV, II
185
Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II (Origin) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (River) A. Godavari B. Krishna C. Narmada D. Vaigai List II (Origin) I. Cardamom Hills II. Amarkantak Hills III. Nasik Hills IV. Mahabaleshwar
  • A
    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    Correct
  • B
    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C
    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • D
    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
186
Assertion (A): In India, most migrations have been from rural to urban areas. Reason (R): The urban areas offer greater employment opportunities and better living conditions.
  • A
    Both A and R are true and R explains A
    Correct
  • B
    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C
    A is true and R is false
  • D
    A is false and R is true
187
Arrange these hills from west to east direction A. Khasi hills B. Garo hills C. Naga hills D. Jaintia Range
  • A
    C, A, B, D
  • B
    D, B, A, C
  • C
    A, B, C, D
  • D
    B, A, D, C
    Correct
188
Assertion (A): The Earth does not receive an equal amount of solar energy at all latitudes. Reason (R): As one goes from low altitude to high altitude temperature decreases because atmosphere becomes less dense.
  • A
    Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
    Correct
  • B
    Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • C
    A is false and R is true
  • D
    A is true and R is false
189
Match the vegetation zones in Column -I with the associated mean annual average temperature (in degree Celsius) in Column-II. Column-I A Tropical B Sub-tropical C Temperate D Alpine Column -II I. \(17^\circ C\) to \(24^\circ C\) II. Above \(24^\circ C\) III. \(7^\circ C\)to \(17^\circ C\) IV. Below \(7^\circ C\)
  • A
    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • B
    A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • C
    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • D
    A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    Correct
190
Match the given crops with their major producing areas shown on the map of India. A. Wheat B. Coffee C. Rice D. Tea
Question 190 figure 1
  • A
    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • B
    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • C
    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • D
    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    Correct
191
Which of the following statement/s is/are true about federal system? a. All federations have a similar scheme of distribution of powers. b. The origins of different federations are dissimilar. c. Federalism promotes unity at the cost of diversity. d. Federalism promotes unity in diversity.
  • A
    Only b
  • B
    a and c
  • C
    a, b and c
  • D
    b and d
    Correct
192
I do not contest elections, but I try to influence the political process. I have a specific policy agenda. I have no interest in seeking political power. Who am I?
  • A
    Court
  • B
    Bureaucracy
  • C
    Media
  • D
    Pressure group
    Correct
193
Which of the following statements/s is/are true? a. India is among the bottom group of nations in the world when it comes to the representation of women in legislatures. b. Women in the Arab countries are most active in public life. c. India has lesser representation of women in legislatures as compared to Sub-Saharan Africa. D. The share of women in legislative assemblies in India is lower than that of their representation in Parliament.
  • A
    a and b
  • B
    b and c
  • C
    a, c and d
    Correct
  • D
    a, b and d
194
Which of the following issues has been most successfully addressed by the Indian democracy?
  • A
    Economic inequality
  • B
    Social inequality
  • C
    Natural inequality
  • D
    Political inequality
    Correct
195
Match List I (Leaders) with List II (Political parties) and select the answer using the codes given below. List I A. E.M.S. Namboodiripad B. Sheikh Abdullah C. N.T. Rama Rao D. Kanshi Ram List II a. Bahujan Samaj Party b. Telugu Desam c. Communist Party of India d. Jammu and Kashmir National Conference
  • A
    Ic, IId, IIIa, IVb
  • B
    Ib, IId, IIIc, IVa
  • C
    Ib, IIc, IIIa, IVd
  • D
    Ic, IId, IIIb, Iva
    Correct
196
Economic growth is growth in
  • A
    value added of all sectors
    Correct
  • B
    value of industrial output
  • C
    value of total investment
  • D
    value of total output
197
Mahatma Gandi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act aims at providing
  • A
    Employment to rural people in government offices.
  • B
    365 days work in rural areas
  • C
    100 days of wage employment in a year to rural households
    Correct
  • D
    300 days of work/year in rural areas
198
A landless worker in a village takes a king loan of two bags of rice from the village landlord. The condition is that she will repay the loan in two and half bags of rice at the end of one year. The interest paid equals
  • A
    The difference between the rates of interest charged by banks between now and at the end of the year
  • B
    31.25 percent of the original amount of loan.
  • C
    The difference between the money value of rice between now and at the end of the year.
  • D
    25 percent of the original amount of loan.
    Correct
199
Non-market activity is
  • A
    a state of unemployment
  • B
    selling the products through the Regulated Market
  • C
    producing for self-consumption
    Correct
  • D
    selling the products nearby temples
200
A typical farmer’s capital includes tractor, turbines, plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand. Which of these combinations can be classified as working capital?
  • A
    Plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand
  • B
    Plough, seeds, fertilisers and pesticides
  • C
    Seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand
    Correct
  • D
    Tractor, turbines and plough