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CBSE Sample Paper of English Communicative for Class X

Summative Assessment – I

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

CLASS X

English – Communicative

Maximum marks: 80                                                                                              Time-3 hours

The question paper is divided into three sections. Section A:         Reading comprehension                                             20 marks Section B:          Writing                                                                            20 marks Section C:         Grammar                                                                          20 marks Section D:         Literature                                                            20 marks SECTION- A (Reading -20 Marks) Q 1 Read the following passage carefully:                                                                             (5 Marks) We are in a rush. We are making haste. A compression of time characterises our lives. As time-use researchers look around, they see a rushing and scurrying everywhere. Instant services rule, pollsters use electronic devices during political speeches to measure opinions before they have been fully formed; fast food restaurants add express lanes. Even reading to children is under pressure. The volume “One Minute Bedtime Stories” consists of traditional stories that can be read by a busy parent in only one minute. Time is a gentle deity, said Sophocles. Perhaps it was, for him. These days it cracks the whip. We humans have chosen speed and we thrive on it – more than we generally admit. Our ability to work fast and play fast gives us power. It thrills us. And if haste is the accelerator, multitasking is the overdrive. A sense of well being comes with this saturation of parallel pathways in the brain. We choose mania over boredom every time.  “Humans have never opted for slower,” points out the historian Stephen Kern. We catch the fever –and cramming our life feels good. There are definite ways to save time, but what does this concept really mean? Does time saving mean getting more done? If so, does talking on a cellular phone at the beach save time or waste it? Does it make sense to say that driving saves ten minutes from your travel budget while removing ten minutes from your reading budget? These questions have no answer. They depend on a concept that is ill formed; the very idea of time saving. Some of us say we want to save time when we really want to do more and faster. It might be simpler to recognize that there is time and we make choices about how to spend it, how to spare it, how to use it and how to fill it. Time is not a thing we have lost. It is not a thing we ever had. It is what we live in. Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below: 1) What Sophocles said is outdated because a)      humans today believe in leading a fast paced life b)      life today must be lived c)      humans have no other choice but to chase time d)      humans have admitted that time today is precious 2) Electronic poll devices, instant services, fast food restaurants signify a)      acceleration in life b)      impatience of our times c)      our need to work fast as it gives us power d)      all of the above 3) According to the author we wish to save time because a)      we hope to be more efficient and capable b)      we wish to accomplish more in a short period of time c)      we wish to make appropriate choices d)      time saved is time earned 4) A word that means the same as ‘filled to capacity’ is a)      mania b)      saturation c)      cramming d)      bored 5) The passage a)      advocates the need to accelerate time so that we can meet our requirements b)      recognizes the need to rush and scurry all the time c)      advises us to recognize time and decide what to do with it d)      appreciates those who invest time wisely Q 2   Read the following passage carefully:                                                                           (5 Marks) A recent trip to Lucknow was an instant eye-opener and a more instant stimulus to introspection. The realization of self degradation started from the station itself. All set to fight the autowallah in Lucknow and accuse him of being a rude fleecer, I was stopped mid-sentence by his demeanour. He was mild, polished and totally agreeable to whatever I would pay him. He was sure I would not pay less than what the fare should be because he felt I had enough money to do so. Of course the respectful way he spoke to me took me completely off guard, and made me a wee bit ashamed. The aggression which one has to display all the time in Delhi, I realized was not needed here. In fact, it was shocking for the autowallah to encounter a presumptuous woman yearning for a fight. That’s what Delhi does to you. It takes away your polish. Unlike Delhi, Lucknow prefers to stay away from hysterical momentum. It takes an easy pace of life, teaches  residents to stay cool, enjoy food, take siestas and work without hitting the breakneck speed barrier. It has set its priorities right. It nurtures its young and it loves its old. In Delhi, morning walkers go for expensive paraphernalia. You need to drive at least five kms to hunt for a park. Back in Lucknow simply walk out of your house and your walk begins. No traffic and no pollution. Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below: 1) The author was all set to fight with the autorickshaw driver in Lucknow as a)      he expected her to pay more than was due b)      she was sure he would be unjust c)      her experience in Delhi had taught her to mistrust autowallahs d)      he was unbelievably discourteous 2) Your personality in Delhi becomes a)      negative and  aggressive b)      agreeable and submissive c)      polished and assertive d)      negative and submissive 3) Morning walkers in Lucknow require a)      a park outside their house b)      expensive paraphernalia c)      good sports gear d)      almost nothing 4) The word ‘presumptuous’ in the passage means a)      modest b)      rude c)      proud d)      imaginative 5) The trip to Lucknow was an eye opener for the author because a)      she realized that every city in India needs to love its old and calm down its young b)      she realized that she was full of negativity c)      she had begun to doubt everyone around her d)      all of the above Q 3 Read the following passage carefully                                                                                           (5 Marks) Su means number and Duko means single. The game of Sudoku has many similarities to the game of life. The game consists of a 9×9 grid divided into 3×3 boxes in which a few numbers called “given”- the number of givens varies between 17 and 30 for a puzzle to be reasonably viable- are already in place. In life, too, you start with a given set of notions and then work from thereon. In Sudoku, you need to follow a set of rules to build up the grid, filling each row, column and box with numbers ranging from one to nine, so much like in life where you have to go on your way without antagonizing anyone else. Respect every number (person) and things would be fine. While trial or error may or may not work, the correct technique is in eliminating numbers that don’t fit in a particular box. In Sudoku, the arrangement of the given numbers is symmetrical. This is instructive in life, on how to maintain steadfast faith, poise and equanimity despite situations when everything turns topsy-turvy. There is a subtle difference between the two as well. Make a mistake and you can erase it and begin all over again in Sudoku. Not so in life. You can learn a lesson though, and avoid making the same mistake in future. Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below: 1) The given numbers in Sudoku are comparable to the ——————————-in life. a)      rules b)      notions c)      people d)      respect 2) In Sudoku, by eliminating numbers that do not fit we a)      keep reducing errors to succeed in life b)      keep adding the chances to solve the puzzle c)      restrict our choices d)      open new avenues 3) In life, symmetry is maintained through a)      patience and hard work b)      balance inspite of hardships c)      constant trust d)       friends and enemies 4) In life we can learn from our mistakes but we cannot a)       begin afresh b)      undo them c)      relive them d)      commit them again 5) To ‘antagonise’ in the passage means a)      to be determined b)      to be noticeable c)      to please d)      to make someone angry Q 4   Read the following passage carefully                                                                           (5 Marks) THESE DREAMS These dreams Obstinate offspring of my wayward mind Keep running out of my home All too often. Somewhat humiliated Somewhat hurt Somewhat angry At times they even rush out barefoot. It is difficult to pacify these stubborn kids or humour them For theirs is a search for eternal spring They wish to seek out the stars and talk to them I am a tired traveller And have not the will To chase them anymore. I have come to terms With my wilderness but I do fear for Those naïve ones Come evening and they may seek solace If they come to you even as you sleep Do not push them away, tenderly hold them In your lap like their fond mother Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below: 1) The poet feels that he cannot control his dreams by saying that they a)      are somewhat angry b)      are obstinate offspring c)      rush out barefoot d)      keep running out of his home 2) I do fear for these naïve ones means that his dreams a)       need to be protected b)       need love and care c)       have become rebellious d)       need a parent to look after them 3) The message of the poem is a)      one must never stop dreaming b)      dreams distract you c)      practicality is the way of life d)      dream but know your limits 4) The poetic device in the first stanza  is a)      simile b)      alliteration c)      metaphor d)      personification 5) Like a fond mother we must a)      nurture our dreams b)      push our dreams to the limits c)      hold them in our laps d)      let them be free SECTION B (Writing- 20marks) Q 5    Use the notes in the following box to write a paragraph of about 100 words.           (4 Marks) Trip to Goa
  • Wonderful place-open houses-eco-friendly
  • People- friendly, happy-go-lucky
  • Landscape-picturesque, beaches, clear blue water
  • Restaurants- delicious sea food
  • Sightseeing- ferry.bus, motorcycles available on rent
  • Carnival- colourful, music ,dance, fun and frolic
Q 6.  Your batch was the first to appear for the revamped examination system for Classes IX and X.  Taking help from the verbal stimulus given below, write an article expressing your opinion and experiences in about 150 words.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  (8 Marks) STUDENTS’ REACTION:                       Grades eliminate competition No board examinations! No stress                                                     Board Examinations are history CCE has made learning very interesting
Exam are essential to review learning and progress
Board are essential to review learning and progress
Q 7   Taking help from the visual given below, write an article for a national daily, sharing your concerns and suggestions about the issues highlighted.                                        (8 Marks) SECTION C (Grammar – 20 Marks) Q 8. Edit the Notice given below by choosing the appropriate option from the list given. (4 Marks)
NOTICE St John’s School, Lucknow Inter School Football Match 15th March 2008 An Inter-School Football Match (a) is organised between our school and City Montessori School. The match (b) will be playing on the 18th March 2008 in our school grounds from 5 p.m. onwards. A student (c) is requested to assemble in the school grounds (d) to witnessed the match and cheer the team. Saurav Sports Captain
(a) (i) is being organised  (ii) has organised     (iii) is organising                 (iv) have been organised (b) (i) would be played    (ii) are played            (iii) will be played             (iv) will play (c) (i) are requested         (ii) were requested   (iii) are being requested  (iv) have been requested (d) (i) witnessing               (ii) witness                   (iii) to witness                     (iv)  are witnessed Q 9. Complete the news stories accompanying the following headlines by filling in the blanks. (4 Marks) (a). Fire in Bangalore high rise, no casualties ……………………………………………………… on the terrace of a five-storey Gold Towers in Residence Road in the heart of Bangalore, a police official said.   ……………………………. so far. (i) A fire broke out; No casualties have been reported (ii) A fire has broken out; No casualties have been reported (iii) A fire is breaking out; No casualties are being reported (iv) A fire broke out; No casualties are said to be reported (b). Sania, Shoaib exchange wedding vows in Hyderabad Indian tennis star Sania Mirza ………………………………………………. at a hotel here on Monday after getting a no-objection certificate from the city police. (i) has been tied the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik (ii) is tying the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik (iii) tied the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik (iv) will have tied the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik (c). Obama asks Pakistan to bring 26/11 perpetrators to justice US President Barack Obama asked Pakistani Prime Minister Yusouf Raza Gilani……………………………………………………., saying that this action would be a positive thing in improving Indo-Pak ties. (i) for bringing the perpetrators of the Mumbai terrorist attack to justice (ii) to brought a perpetrators of the Mumbai terrorist attack to justice (iii) to bring perpetrators of Mumbai terrorist attack to justice (iv) to bring the perpetrators of the Mumbai terrorist attack to justice (d). Pakistan: 35 militants, 2 soldiers die in fighting Militants armed with rockets and automatic weapons ……………………………….. in northwestern Pakistan………………………………………………….., officials said. (i) attacked against two security checkpoints; leaving  at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead (ii) have attacked two security checkpoints; left  at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead (iii) attacked two security checkpoints; that has left at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead (iv) attacked two security checkpoints; leaving  at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead Q 10   Choose the most appropriate options to complete the dialogue given below. (4 Marks) Nandini: Hello Niharika! Niharika: Hi, What a pleasant surprise! Nandini: It’s been a long time since we met.Where (a) ———————————all these years? Niharika:   In Delhi. How about you? What (b)——————————- nowadays? Nandini:   I’m a fashion designer looking for a job. Last time we met you were still studying. (c)———————-business management? Niharika: In 2001. Actually I’m here for an interview with a multinational. Nandini: That’s a wonderful piece of news! When (d)———————————————–? Niharika: I have to report at 5pm today. The office is in Sardar Patel Marg. Can you drop me there? Nandini: Of course! Look there is plenty of time before that. Let’s treat ourselves to coffee. (a) (i)  had you been   (ii)  were you                 (iii)   are you                        (iv)   have you been (b) (i) are you doing   (ii)  will you be doing     (iii)  have you been doing    (iv)  had you been doing (c) (i)  Are you doing   (ii) When did you finish  (iii)  How did you finish      (iv)  Have you finished (d) (i)  did you report?  (ii)  would you come?  (iii)  do you have to report? (iv) do you have to come? Q 11. Look at the notes given below and complete the paragraph that follows by choosing the correct option.                                                                                                              (4 Marks)
Egyptians discovered paper – made of stalks of tall reed -from word ‘papyrus’ — supplies limited – export restricted
The (a) ……………………………… Egyptians. It (b) ……………………………. The   English  word   ‘paper’  (c)  …………………………….. When   supplies   were limited (d) ………………………………….. the export. (a) (i) discovery of paper has been made by the      (ii) discovery of the paper was made by (iii) discovery of paper was made by the            (iv) discovery of paper is made by (b) (i) was made from  stalks of reed                      (ii) had been made with stalks of reed (iii) was being made of stalks with reed          (iv) was made with stalks from reed (c) (i) derived from  the word  papyrus                   (ii)  is derived of  the word  papyrus (iii) has been derived from  the word  papyrus                (iv) was derived from the word  papyrus (d) (i) and a restriction was imposed on                 (ii) a restriction was imposed on (iii) a restriction has been imposed on                (iv) a restriction was imposed by Q 12.   Read the following conversation carefully and complete the following passage by choosing the most appropriate options.                                                                                           (4 Marks) Dilip:  I’ve been watching the sea and there hasn’t been any trace of a ship. Ralph: I told you yesterday too that we’ll be rescued, so have patience. Dilip:  Why do you ask me to keep quiet whenever I say something? Ralph: Have you ever said anything sensible? Dilip said (a) ______________________________________ Ralph replied (b) ______________________________________and so asked him to have patience.   Dilip angrily asked Ralph (c) __________________to which Ralph wanted to know (d) ____________________. a) (i)     that he had been watching the sea and there hadn’t been any trace of a ship. (ii)    he had been watching the sea and there hasn’t been any trace of a ship. (iii)  that he watched the sea and there wasn’t any trace of a ship. (iv)   that he had watched the sea and there wasn’t any trace of a ship. b) (i)     that he had told him  before too that they would be rescued. (ii)   that he told him the next day too that they would be rescued. (iii) that he had told him the day before too that they would be rescued. (iv)   that he told him the day before too that they will be rescued. c) (i)     Why he asked him to keep quiet whenever he said something. (ii)   Why he should keep quiet whenever he said something. (iii) that why he asked him to keep quiet whenever he said something. (iv)  Why was there a need for him to be quiet. d) (i)     whether he had ever said anything sensible. (ii)   if he had never said anything sensible. (iii) if he ever said anything sensible. (iv)  that If he ever said anything sensible. SECTION  D (Literature -20 Marks) Q 13   Read the extracts and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate options.  Attempt any two.                                                                (3×2=6 Marks) (a) More insects, more lanterns, more neighbours More insects and the endless rain. My mother twisted through and through Groaning on a mat. 1) The cause of the mother’s agony was a) the scorpion’s bite b) the missing scorpion c) the villager’s attitude d) the endless rain 2) The poet uses the word more a)      to highlight the number b)      to emphasise mother’s pain c)      for the superstitious villagers d)      for the poem to rhyme 3) The tone of the poet in the extract is that of a)      frustration b)      irony c)      satire d)      cynici (b) I’m not the man I was! I will not be the man I must have been but for this lesson. I will honour Christmas in my heart 1) The change was brought about in the speaker a)      by the ghost of Jacob Marley b)      by the spirit of the future c)      by the pitiable condition of the Crachit family. d)      by  his own conscience 2) The speaker honours Christmas by a)      sending turkey to Crachit’s house b)      giving money to the boy c)      adopting the spirit of Christmas d)      all of the above 3) The lesson that he learnt was a)       to be compassionate and giving b)       to outscore others c)      to live and let live d)      To help people lead a peaceful life (c) Oh, lift me as a wave, a leaf, a cloud ! I fall upon the thorns of life, I bleed ! A heavy weight of hours has chain’d and bow’d One too like thee- tamlless and swift and proud. 1) The above lines reflect the poet’s a)      nostalgia b)      ecstasy c)      dejection d)      fear 2) The poet requests the West Wind a)      to help him create poetry b)      to accompany him on his wanderings c)      to take him away from his sorrows d)      to chain and bend him 3) The poet device used in the above lines is a)      simile b)      metaphor c)      apostrophe d)      repetition Q 14. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each.                       (2×4=8 Marks) a)      How does the west wind act both as a destroyer and preserver? b)      Cutie Pie is an intense and emotional character. Give two references from the text to support your statement. c)      Cratchit proposes the first toast to Mr. Scrooge. What does it tell you about Cratchit’s character? d)      Give an example of ‘leaf imagery’ as used by Shelley to express the moods and influence of West Wind. e)      What are the cobwebs that Babuli refers to in the chapter ‘The Tribute’? Q 15   Answer any one of the following:                                                                                            (6 Marks) As Babuli’s wife, present your case challenging your husband’s decision in a letter you write to him. OR The newspaper yelled it. TV followed it up. It seemed a big story, bigger than………. As a reader express your opinion about the role media played in Cutie Pie’s existence on Earth. EXAMINATION SPECIFICATIONS English Communicative Code No. 101 CLASS – X
Division of Syllabus for Term I (April-September) Total Weightage Assigned
Summative Assessment I
Section Marks 20%
Reading 20
Writing 20
Grammar 20
Literature 20
Formative Assessment 20%
TOTAL 40%
Division of Syllabus for Term II (October-March) Total Weightage Assigned
Summative Assessment II
Section Marks
Reading 20 40%
Writing 20
Grammar 20
Literature 20
Formative Assessment 20%
TOTAL 60%
Note:
  1. The total weightage assigned to Summative Assessment (SA I&II) IS 60%.  The total weightagwe assigned to Formative Assessment (FA1, 2, 3, &4) is 40%.  Out of the 40% assigned to Formative Assessment, 10% weightage is assigned to conversation skills (5% each in Term I&II) and 10% weightage to the Reading Project (at least 1 Book is to be read in each term and the Project will carry a weightage of 5% in each term)
  1. The Summative Assessment I and Summative Assessment II is for eighty marks.  The weighatge assigned to Summative Assessment I is 20% and the weightage assigned to Summative Assessment II is 40%.
SECTION A: READING 20 Marks Qs1-4 Four unseen reading passages of 5 marks each.  Each reading passage will have 5 sub-parts, each of 1 mark.  All questions will be multiple choice questions.  The passages will be extracts from poems/ factual/ descriptive/ literary/ discursive passages.  Questions will test inference, evaluation and vocabulary.  There will be at least 04 marks for assessing vocabulary skills.  The total length of the 4 passages will be between 650 and 800 words. SECTION B: WRITING                                                                                                                                     20 Marks The writing section comprises of three writing task as indicated below: Q 5 A short answer question of upto 80 words in the form of a Biographical Sketch (expansion of notes on an individual’s life or achievements into a short paragraph)/Data Interpretation, Dialogue Writing or Description (People, Places, Events). The question will assess students’skill of expressing ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, presenting ideas coherently and concisely, writing a clear description, a clear account of events, expanding notes into a piece of writing , or transcoding information from one form to another.                                                                        4 Marks Q 6 Along answer question (minimum 120 words) in the form of a formal letter/ informal letter or an email.  The output would be a long piece of writing and will assess the use of appropriate style, language, content and expression. Q 7 A long answer question (minimum 150 words) in the form of a diary entry, article, speech, story or debate. Students’skills in expression of ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, planning, organising and presenting ideas coherently by introducing, developing and concluding a topic, comparing and contrasting ideas and arriving at a conclusion, presenting an argument with supporting examples, using an appropriate style and format and expanding notes into longer pieces of writing and creative expression of ideas will be assessed.                                                                                                                                                                         8 Marks Important Notes on Format and Word Limit:
  • Format will not carry any separate marks and in most cases, format will be given in the question paper.
  • The word limit given is the suggested minimum word limit.  No candidate may be penalised for writing more or less than the suggested word limit.  Stress should be on content, expression, coherence and relevance of the content presented.
SECTION C: GRAMMAR This section will assess Grammar items in context for 20 Marks. It will carry 5 question of 4 marks each. Tests items will be Multiple Choice Questions and test various grammatical items in context. Q 8to12 will test grammar items which have been dealt with in class X.  Different structures such as verb forms, sentence structure, connectors, determiners, pronouns, prepositions, clauses, phrases etc., can be tested through formative assessment over a period of time.  As far as the summative assessment is concerned, it will recycle grammar items learnt over a period of time and will test them in context through Multiple Choice Question format. Tests types used will include gap-filling, cloze (gap filling exercise with blanks at regular intervals), sentence completion, recording word groups into sentences, editing, dialogue-completion and sentence-transformation. The grammar syllabus will be sampled each year, with marks allotted for: Verbs forms Sentence structures Other areas Note: Jumbled words in reordering exercise to test syntax will involve sentences in a context.  Each sentence will be split into sense groups (not necessarily into single words) and jumbled up. Section D: LITERATURE                                                                                                                                    20 Marks Q 13 Two extracts out of three from prose, poetry or plays in the form Multiple Choice Questions based on reference to context.  Each extract will carry 3 marks. (Word limit: 20-30 words)                                                                                                                      3+3=6 Marks Q 14 Four out of Five short answer type questions based on prose, poetry and play of 2 marks each.  The questions will not test recall but inference and evaluation. (Word limit: 30-40 words each)                                                                                                                  8 Marks Q 15 One out of two long answer type questions to assess personal response to text by going beyond the extrapolation beyond the text and across two texts will also be assessed. 6 Marks Prescribed Books/ Materials 1. Interact in English – X                Main Course Book           Revised edition 2. Interact in English – X                Literature Reader            Revised edition     Published by CBSE 3. Interact in English –X                 Workbook                           Revised edition     Delhi-110092 Reading Section: Reading for comprehension, critical evaluation, inference and analysis is a skill to be tested formatively as well as summatively.  There will be no division of passages for this section, however for reading purpose, the Interact in English Main Course Book will be read in two terms i.e. Term I(April-September) and Term II (October-March). Writing Section: All types of short and extended writing tasks will be dealt with in both I and II Term Summative as well as in Formative Assessment. For purpose of assessment all themes dealt with in Main Course Book and other themes may be used. Grammar: Grammar items mentioned in the syllabus will be taught and assessed summatively as well as formatively over a period of time.  There will be no division of syllabus for Grammar in the summative of formative assessments for the terms. Syllabus for SA 1
Literature Reader
PROSE
1. The Tribute
2. Cutie Pie
POETRY
1. Night of the Scorpion
2. Ode to the West Wind
DRAMA
1. A Christmas Carol
Main Course Book
1. Health and Medicine
2. Education